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EPIC CLN 251/252 PACKAGE DEAL|ALL GRADED A |GUARANTEED SUCCESS

EPIC CLN 251/252 PACKAGE DEAL|ALL GRADED A |GUARANTEED SUCCESS

209 items

Texas Eyelash Extensions License Exam |97 questions fully solved

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4 rounds the number of times you should comb through the lashes to check for separation of the lashes and stickies Straight Tweezers tweezers used to hold the side lashes away from the main isolated lash Curved Tweezers used to isolate the lash that you will then be placing on eyela...

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TDLR Eyelash extensions| 85 questions and answers.

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single use items an item that is pourus & constructed of cloth, wood, or other absorbant material having rough surfaces chlorine bleach solution for LOW level Gallon of bleach & 2 teaspoons of water Multi-use An item constructed of hard materials with smooth surface such as metal, g...

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TDLR Eyelash Extension Review exam |90 questions and answers 2023

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Cleaning The process of using soap and water or detergent and water to remove all visible dirt debris and many disease causing germs. Disinfection A chemical process that uses specific products to destroy harmful organisms (except bacterial spores) on environmental surfaces. Steriliz...

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Eyelash Extensions Written Exam|151 questions with correct answers.

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The form that notifies the buyer and user of potential health and safety hazards associated with its use is a_________. MSDS sheets MSDS means Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) __________ is the main ingredient in most eyelash extensions adhesives today. Cyanoacrylate _______...

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TDLR Texas Cosmetology Laws and Rules Book |80 questions and answers.

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A razor that is fitted with a guard close to the cutting edge safety razor Cosmetology does not include what service threading How old do you have to be to be eligible for a license? 17 How many hours do you have to have to obtain a instructor license? 750 hours (at least 18...

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TDLR Fees test questions and answers

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Application Fee For Operator License $50 Application Fee For Specialty License- Esthetician, Manicurist, Eyelash Extension $50 Application Fee For Specialty Certificate- Hair Weaving $50 Application Fee For Student Permit $25 Application Fee For Instructor License $6...

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Lash PSI Exam questions and answers 2023

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how often does the risk-based department inspect each shop or other facility that holds a license, certificate, or permit in which the practice of barbering or cosmetology? At least once every 2 years The department shall deny anyone or revoke a certificate, license, or permit if? Someone a...

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TDLR EXAMEN ESTENSIONES DE PESTANAS(SOLVED).

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CADA CUANDO SE DEBE RENOVAR SU LICENCIA DE EXTENSIONES DE PESTAÑAS? CADA DOS AÑOS CUANTAS HORAS DE EDUCACION CONTINUA SON REQUERIDAS PARA LA RENOVACION DE SU LICENCIA? 4 HORAS CON CUANTO TIEMPO DEBE AVISAR AL DEPARTAMENTO DE LICENSIAS EN CASO DE CAMBIO DE NOMBRE O DIRECCION CON 30...

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TDLR Cosmetology Fees exam questions and answers.

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Operator License $50 Specialty License--Esthetician, Manicurist, Esthetician/Manicurist, Eyelash Extension $50 Specialty Certificate--Hair Weaving, Wig $50 Student Permit $25 Instructor License $60 Instructor Specialty License--Esthetician, Manicurist, Estheti...

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CLC 059 Subcontracting exam questions and answers

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What is a purchase order, task order, or other contract between a prime contractor and another business to support the prime contract and to which the government has no contractual relationship, i.e., no privity? Subcontract Which of the following are key, recommended resources for subcontra...

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CLC 059 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

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CLC 059 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

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CLC 059 Management of Subcontracting Compliance questions and answers.

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When FAR 52.244-6 is included in noncommercial contracts, it identifies the clauses to be included in what kinds of subcontracts? Subcontracts for commercial or non-developmental items. How will the inclusion of the flow-down clauses in CD 2018-O0021 or FAR 52.244-6 impact post-award subcont...

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CLM 059 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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Small businesses operate in an environment that includes a variety of entities, each with its own interests and influence on small business participation in Government acquisition Congress generates the legislation that impacts acquisition regulations and policy. Since the Depression of the 1930...

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CLC entrance exam questions with correct answers.

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Mounted Reconnaissance -enables a more rapid tempo while increasing the potential compromise of reconnaissance efforts. Takes advantage of standoff capabilities provided by surveillance and weapon systems to observe and engage from greater distances and or the speed associated with mounted movem...

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WGU D333 Ethics in Technology – WGU |332 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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acceptable use policy (AUP) A document that stipulates restrictions and practices that a user must agree in order to use organizational computing and network resources. acceptance When an organization decides to accept a risk because the cost of avoiding the risk outweighs the potential los...

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Utilitarianism idea that the goal of society should be to bring about the greatest happiness for the greatest number of people Consequentialism An ethical system that determines the goodness or evilness from the effect or result of an act. Utilitarianism/Consequentialism utilitarian...

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D333 - Ethics in Technology WGU (Applicable Laws) questions and answers.

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Fair Credit Reporting Act regulates the operations of credit reporting bureaus. Right to Financial Privacy Act protects the financial records of financial institution customers from unauthorized scrutiny by the federal government. Gramm Leach Bliley Act (GLBA) established mandatory ...

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D333 Pre-assessment Ethic in Technology |164 questions and answers 2023

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D333 Pre-assessment Ethic in Technology |164 questions and answers 2023

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Ethics Review D333 WGU |212 questions with correct answers.

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Malware that stops you from using your computer until you meet certain demands is categorized as: Ransomware Flooding a target website with automated requests for data in order to reduce its usefulness for legitimate users is called: DDoS attack Using fraudulent emails in order to tr...

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Ethics in Technology WGU |113 questions and answers.

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right of privacy "the right to be left alone -- the most comprehensive of rights, and the right most valued by a free people information privacy The combination of communications privacy (the ability to communicate with others without those communications being monitored by other persons o...

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WGU D333 Ethics in Technology – LAWS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS 2023

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Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) An agreement of the World Trade Organization that requires member governments to ensure that intellectual property rights can be enforced under their laws and that penalties for infringement are tough enough to deter further...

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D333 Pre-assessment Ethic in Technology with 100% correct answers

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Two programmers disagree about which philosophical theory is best suited for their autonomous vehicles. One programmer suggests their vehicle should always choose the greatest good for the greatest number of people. Which philosophical theory encapsulates this stance? Utilitarianism Wh...

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AMMO 49 |35 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

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AMMO 49 |35 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

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Ammo 49 2023 oct exam questions with 100% correct answers.

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Ammo 49 2023 oct exam questions with 100% correct answers.

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AMMO 49 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

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What are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? -Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations -Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer -Keeping site maps up to date What is the correct order of the five steps in th...

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AMMO 49 TEST QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS.

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Ammo Handler exam questions with correct answers

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--- checks all landfill items before putting them in the dumpster --- open all cans, boxes, and container, and remove both cap ends on fiber, and plastic container --- removes or obliterate explosive labels and markings What tasks does the Ammunition Handler do to process a unit 's residue turn-...

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Ammo Handler 2023 with 100% correct answers (verified for accuracy).

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Who is responsible for reviewing ammunition issue authorization form? Stock Control Specialist What is DA Form 1687 used for? Identifies who is authorized to receive the ammunition issue. How does the Stock Control Specialist know what ammunition items the unit requires for the train...

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AMMO 45 EXAM WITH CORRECT ANSWERS

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AMMO 45 EXAM WITH CORRECT ANSWERS

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Ammo-68 with 100% correct answers already graded A+

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Military Munitions (MM) includes all items (such as bullets, bombs, projectiles, and grenades) produced and used by or for the U.S. Department of Defense and its Armed Services for national defense and security purposes. MM also includes items under the control of the Department of Energy. ...

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ammo 67 exam questions with verified solutions.

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Types of hazmat transportation land (highway/rail) sea air Define hazmat any material or substance capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property when transported. What training does the HAZMAT Familiarization and Safety in Transportation course provide? ap...

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AMMO 49 WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS VERIFIED FOR ACCURACY 2023

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Ammo 51 test questions with verified solutions.

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AMMO-45 Exam 2023 with correct answers.

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AMMO 49 WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+

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Ammo 67 exam 2023 with 100% correct answers

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Which of the following topics are included in this hazmat familiarization and safety and transportation training? Select all that apply B, C, D Hazmat represents materials or substances capable of posing in unreasonable risk to: select all that apply A, B, D What type of penalty resu...

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AMMO 68 EXAM(SOLVED & UPDATED 2023)

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Chemical Munitions and Agents are _____ Military Munitions Are DoD units outside the U.S. subject to RCRA? No States may impose less stringent requirements than those in the Military Munitions Rule (MMR). False Which of these is considered a used military munition? 40mm gren...

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Ammo 18 NKO questions and answers

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What are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? -Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations -Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer -Keeping site maps up to date What is the correct order of the five steps in th...

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Military Munitions Rule- AMMO 51 Answers

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You should keep emergency response record for at least 3 years Who determines if an explosive emergency is a level 1 or level 2? Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) specialist A range has a large bin for storing munition waste. when the bin is full, it is sent to a TSDF for disposal. A...

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ammunition handlers ammo 108 course practice exam questions and answers

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Which of the following is not a placard requirement when shipping HAZMAT? True Which form do you use to transfer ammunition to range personnel or other unit personnel? Da form 581 Malfunctions include hang fires, duds, abnormal functioning and: Cook-offs Which form do you use...

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Ammo 69 CDF questions and answers 2023.

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Following the catastrophic ordnance incident involving an Mk 24 aircraft parachute flare aboard the USS Oriskany (CVA-34) in 1966, the Flag Board of inquiry determined that the accident was partially due to? the lack of training Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Qual/Cert...

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Ammo 64 questions and answers already graded A+

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What is the Purpose of the TAMIS Training AmmunitionsForecast Report(TAFR)? Specify yearly training ammunition needs for each unit Which units are allowed to pick up ammunition? SGT E5 and above. What is the purpose of DA Form 1687? Authorize specified individuals to request and/or ...

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Ammo practice questions and answerS

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What are lot numbers used for? Used by manufactures for quality control What are the parts to lot numbers? Manufactures Identification code (MIC) (identifies primary manufacturer of the round) Year/month of production (I not used) Lot Interfix number Tenth Position Sequence Number (roun...

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Ammo exam questions with complete solutions

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What is ammo classified according to? physical properties how are explosives classified? combustion rate what are small arms ammo? ammo under 30mm How much do grenades weigh? 1 - 1.5ibs What is an FSG and what does it do? Federal Supply Group; divides ammo into serie...

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Ammo 49&18 NKO questions and answers

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What are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? -Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations -Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer -Keeping site maps up to date What is the correct order of the five steps in th...

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Ammo 18 NKO questions with 100% correct answers

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What are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? -Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations -Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer -Keeping site maps up to date What is the correct order of the five steps in th...

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AMMO 67, HAZMAT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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SPC Chu Hurried to leave the ASP after loading the truck. She noticed some shipping papers were missing but didn't notify the ASP. after wrecking the truck, she learned the explosives were incompatible. What violation did she commit? Crimminal What type of hazard is identified by the image?...

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AMMO 51 MV QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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Which regulation establishes the Department of Defense (DOD) policies and procedures for the transportation and movement of material? DTR 4500.9-R Which volume of the NAVSEA OP5 applies to the transportation of hazardous materials ashore? Volume 1 Which Department of Transportation S...

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Ammo Physical Security practice exam questions fully solved & updated 2023.

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You are on guard duty at a category I missile and rocket storage area. Which additional restriction do you have to enforce? don't let just one authorized person in (two-person rule) While guarding a category II and III storage area, the following people ask to enter the restricted area. Whi...

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Identification of Ammo test questions and answers.

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ammunition any material that is fired, scattered, dropped, thrown, propelled, or denotation DODAC FSC and the DODIC (except repair and industrial) TB composed of NSN and DoD codes for ammo and parts SB 708-21 contains FSGs and FSCs ammunition lot the quantity of amm...

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Ammo 49 2021 oct questions and answers.

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Ammo 49 2021 oct questions and answers.

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Ammunition Handler's Course questions fully solved 2023.

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When using specially controlled training ammunition items, a DA Form 5692 must be used. Who is required to sign this form? Commander The range ammunition NCO asks you to transfer two cases of unopened ammunition to him. Which form would you use to do this? DA Form 581 Before leaving ...

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Ammo 51 Answers 2023 latest update

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When HC/D 1 4S does NOT require a label, it also does NOT require a Placard What is the purpose of the DD Form 626? To provide for mechanical inspection of the motor vehicle and cargo spaces Which code identifies the degree of security assigned to an item? CIIC A sailor needs...

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INTRODUCTION TO AMMUNITION (Cert) (AMMO-45) QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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Which of these true statements about bombs differentiate bombs from artillery ammo, rockets, and missiles? Bombs are not fired from a weapon Cartridges for shotguns and .50 caliber and smaller cartridges are which category of ammunition? Small arms ammunition Ammunition pallets may b...

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DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification |612 questions and answers.

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Why do childcare professionals observe and screen children? So they can facilitate the growth and development of every child in their program, detect early signs of development, delay or disability, and identify signs of child abuse or neglect. Observation an ongoing process in which child ...

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DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification- Rules and Regulations (Florida) 2023 questions and answers

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Florida Law Bill passed and signed by FL legislators Rules implement, interpret, and describe law Ordinance local laws that only apply within jurisdiction Regulation law, rule, or ordinance to regulate conduct Florida Statutes permanent collection of the states laws,...

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DCF 40 hour training 2023 questions and answers

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Regulation is a law, rule, ordinance, or other order prescribed by authority, especially to regulate conduct. Child care the care, protection, and supervision of a child for a period of less than 24 hours a day on a regular basis A child care program is either licensed, registered or...

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FL DCF 40 Hrs, CHILD CARE FACILITIES RULE AND REGULATIONS (RNRF) |170 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS.docx

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DCF Department of Children and Families DCF Responsibilities Administration of child care licensing and training Ensuring children are well cared for in a safe, healthy, positive, and educational environment by trained, qualified child care staff This agency determines state rules per...

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DCF 40 Hours Child Care (HSAN) Health, Safety, and Nutrition (2023) |152 questions and answers.

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Appetite A desire to eat. Isolation Area A designated area for a child who becomes ill at the facility, which must be away from the other, healthy children. Safety Hazards Things in the environment that can be identified as dangerous to one's health and welfare. Communicable...

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DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification- Understanding Developmentally Appropriate Practices (Florida) 2023

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What affect does quality early care on children? "...children who have high-quality care see academic benefits lasting into high school." DAP Developmentally Appropriate Practice focuses on children birth to eight years old and is made up of three principle components: age appropriateness...

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DCF child care 40 hour- Behavior Observation |61 questions and answers.

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Observation when a child care worker recognizes and notes an identifiable performance or behavior and uses instruments such as checklists, anecdotal records and running records. The instruments are used to measure progress against a standard and to share results with assessment experts. Sc...

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DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification- Child Abuse and Neglect (Florida) 2023 questions and answers already graded A+.docx

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Physical Abuse The mistreatment of a child by a person responsible for the child's welfare that results in injury or harm to the child Sexual Abuse Sexual contact or interaction between a child and an adult or older child. Includes indecent exposure, fondling, touching sexual organs, forci...

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DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification- Health, Safety, and Nutrition (Florida) 2023 questions fully solved

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Health Appetite A desire to eat Impermeable Surface A surface that is resistant to water, chemicals and other fluids. Required in areas such as changing tables, playpens, cots, and sleeping mats. Safety hazards Things in the environment that can be identified as dangerous to ...

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DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification- Child Growth and Development (Florida) 2016 with 100% correct answers

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Growth specific body changed and increases in the child's size Babies can grow ___ inches in length and triple their birth weight 10 How many inches will a child grow per year after their first year? 5 per year until about age 3 How many inches will a child grow after 3 year...

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Early Childhood Education Theorists, DCF 40 Hours Child Care (HSAN) Health, Safety, and Nutrition (2019),

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Albert Bandura (Social Learning Theory) •Vicarious vs. Enactive (learning by watching vs. learning by doing) •Four Elements of Observational Learning: 1. Attention 2. Retention 3. Production 4. Motivation & Reinforcement •Four Sources of Self-Efficacy Appraisals: 1. Actual Performanc...

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DCF RNRF CHILD CARE FACILITY RULES and REGULATIONS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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child care The care, protection, and supervision of a child, for a period of less than 24hrs a day on a regular basis, which supplements parental care, enrichment, and health supervision for the child, in accordance with his or her individual needs, and for which a payment, fee or grant is made for...

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DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification-|612 questions with correct answers.

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Florida Department of Children of Families This agency determines state rules pertaining to child care and enforces these rules by licensing and inspecting child care facilities. Local Fire Department This agency inspects child care facilities and educates child care professionals about min...

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Child Care Facility Rules and Regulations- DCF |114 questions with correct answers

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Florida Law Bill passed and signed by FL legislators Rules implement, interpret, and describe law Ordinance local laws that only apply within jurisdiction Regulation law, rule, or ordinance to regulate conduct Florida Statutes permanent collection of the states laws,...

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DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification- Rules and Regulations (Florida) 2023| 103 questions and answers

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Florida Law Bill passed and signed by FL legislators Rules implement, interpret, and describe law Ordinance local laws that only apply within jurisdiction Regulation law, rule, or ordinance to regulate conduct Florida Statutes permanent collection of the states laws,...

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DCF 40 hour training practice exam questions and answers

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Regulation is a law, rule, ordinance, or other order prescribed by authority, especially to regulate conduct. Child care the care, protection, and supervision of a child for a period of less than 24 hours a day on a regular basis A child care program is either licensed, registered or...

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DCF Child Growth and Development CGAD |172 questions and answers

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What is a theory? A set of facts or principles analyzed in relation to one another and used to explain phenomena(a fact or behavior that can be observed) How do you create a positive environment for children in your care? *Ensure learning centers have ample space for movement. *Reduce the ...

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DCF Childcare Training Courses 1-5| 407 questions and answers

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What is a theory? A set of facts or principles analyzed in relation to one another and used to explain phenomena(a fact or behavior that can be observed) How do you create a positive environment for children in your care? *Ensure learning centers have ample space for movement. *Reduce the ...

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FL DCF Child Care, Preschool Appropriate Practices (PSPR) (2023)| 265 questions and answers

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Developmentally appropriate practice, or DAP, is a concept developed by the National Association for the Education of Young Children (NAEYC). Developmentally Appropriate Practice focuses on children birth to eight years old and is made up of three principle components: age appropriateness, ...

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DCF Certification Test - Child Abuse and Neglect questions with 100% correct answers 2023.

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Three children die of child abuse in the home in the US each ___ day How many people report child abuse when faced with an actual situation? 1/3 What is the single leading cause of death for children ages 4 and younger? Child Abuse & Neglect On average, child abuse is reporte...

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Regulation is a law, rule, ordinance, or other order prescribed by authority, especially to regulate conduct. Child care the care, protection, and supervision of a child for a period of less than 24 hours a day on a regular basis A child care program is either licensed, registered or...

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Why do childcare professionals observe and screen children? So they can facilitate the growth and development of every child in their program, detect early signs of development, delay or disability, and identify signs of child abuse or neglect. Observation an ongoing process in which child ...

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DCF 40 Hours Child Care (HSAN) Health, Safety, and Nutrition (2019)| 152 questions and answers.

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Appetite A desire to eat. Isolation Area A designated area for a child who becomes ill at the facility, which must be away from the other, healthy children. Safety Hazards Things in the environment that can be identified as dangerous to one's health and welfare. Communicable...

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AAB MT Basic Knowledge |76 questions with 100% correct answers.

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What agency approves new test methodologies, instruments, and reagents before they are available for purchase by consumers? FDA How often should biological safety hoods be inspected? Annually What is the minimum number of standards required for a standard curve? 3 What is the...

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AAB MT Hematology| 232 questions with 100% correct answers.

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What is hemoglobin composed of? 4 heme, 4 iron, 4 globins What disorder does a defect in heme synthesis lead to? Porphyria Porphyria Deficiency in the enzymes of the porphyrin pathway leads to insufficient production of heme. The principal problem in these deficiencies is the accumu...

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AAB MT Exam General Knowledge General Operations |32 questions with correct answers.

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What are four types of centrifuges commonly used in the clinical lab? Tabletop, Micro, High-Speed, and Ultra. What does the daily maintenance of a centrifuge commonly consist of? Cleaned with 10% bleach What does the periodic maintenance of a centrifuge commonly consist of? Speed ch...

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What term describes the morphology of organisms that vary in shape and size? Pleomorphic i.e. coccobacilli Bacteriology arrangements: -pairs (diplococci "N. Gon"; diplobacilli -chains (streptococci, streptobacilli) -grape like clusters (staphylococci) -group of four-tetrads (peptoco...

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AAB MT Chemistry- Practice |114 questions and answers

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Which of the following aminoacidopathies is NOT caused by an enzyme deficiency? Choose one answer. a. phenylketonuria b. alkaptonuria c. maple syrup disease d. cystinuria d. cystinuria What method is most commonly used to measure total protein? Choose one answer. a. dye binding b. Kj...

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AAB MT Microbiology |215 questions with 100% correct answers

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What term describes the morphology of organisms that vary in shape and size? Pleomorphic Capsules are the basis of which test? Serotyping A mucoid colony on blood agar medium indicates that which of the following characteristics may be present? Organism has a capsule. What ar...

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MT AAB Chemistry |215 questions with 100% correct answers already graded A+

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Which of the four elements in proteins differentiated this class of substances from carbohydrates and lipids? Nitrogen Which of the proteins is soluble in water? Albumin How are amino acids joined together to form a chainlike structure? Peptide bonding Proteins may become den...

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MT AAB Immunology |212 questions with 100% verified correct answers

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Which of the following is not an external defense mechanism of natural immunity that provides the human body with a defense against invading microorganisms? Bursa of Fabricius All of the following are external defense mechanisms of natural immunity that provides the human body with a defense...

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AAB MT Microbiology 2023 |215 questions with 100% correct answers.

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What term describes the morphology of organisms that vary in shape and size? Pleomorphic Capsules are the basis of which test? Serotyping A mucoid colony on blood agar medium indicates that which of the following characteristics may be present? Organism has a capsule. What ar...

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AAB MT Exam Chem Urinalysis & Body Fluids| 158 questions and answers.

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What consists of the gross renal anatomy? Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, and Urethra What is the anatomy of the Nephron? Glomerulus. proximal convoluted tubule, descending Loop of Henle, Ascending Loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, and collecting duct. What are the 3 primary functi...

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Chemistry MT AAB board exam review #1 with 100% correct answers.

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Specimens that can be analyzed for carbon dioxide 1. Serum 2. Plasma 3. Whole blood What will happen if blood is exposed to air during specimen collection for pH and blood gases? p C O 2 decreases Henderson-Hasselbalch equation p H = p k a + log salt / acid What is the rati...

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Concerning antigen-antibody reactions, the prozone effect causes which of the following results? A. False positive B. False negative C. No reaction D. Mixed field reaction B. False negative The following characteristics are applicable to Interferon-Gamma Release Assays (IGRAs) except: ...

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Centrifuges (4) #1- Table top centrifuges are used in clinical labs to separate cells from serum or plasma. #2- Micro-centrifuges are small centrifuges used for small plastic conical containers with an integral snap cap. #3- High speed centrifuges reach speeds b/w 17,000 & 30,000 rpm. #4- Ultra ...

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All of the following blood donors would be permanently deferred except which one? 38yr old male who received rabies vaccine after a dog bite 3mos ago What is the interval blood donations? 8 weeks The oral temperature of a donor must not exceed which value? 37.5C 99.5F What is...

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The diagnostic value of the reticulocyte count in the evaluation of anemia is that it determines the: Response and potential of the bone marrow The greatest risk for the manifestation of anomalies in maternal rubella infection during gestation is the: First trimester The hepatitis B ...

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EPA LEAD RISK ASSESSOR EXAM STUDY GUIDE WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

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HUD Guidelines What Federal document serves as an overall guideline for performing inspections, risk assessments, and abatement activities? chelation therapy A child may be treated for lead poisoning by using... Identify LBP hazards The purpose of a lead risk assessment is to? ...

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At which of the following ages are children in the most danger of lead exposure and the health effects from that exposure? 1-3 years of age Lead may be absorbed through the intestines after it is ingested. What is the effect on the absorption of lead when people don't eat properly? More le...

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1978 When did they reduce to Lead Levels in consumer products The underside of a horizontal surface which projects beyond a wall line, such as an overhanging roof. What is a soffit? False T/F: The risk assessor should be involved in the process of selecting a contractor. 1. T...

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ug/g micrograms per gram ug/ft2 micrograms per foot squared(xrf) mg/cm2 milligrams per centimeter squared (XRF) mg/dl milligrams per deciliter ug/m3 microgram per deci-liter (quantity in blood) 1% 10,000 ppm allowed quantity of lead in dry surface pain...

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ug/g microgram per gram ug/ft2 microgram per foot square (dust sampling) mg/cm2 milligrams per centimeter squared (XRF) ug/dL microgram per deci-liter ug/m3 microgram per deci-liter (quantity in blood) 1% 10,000 ppm Allowed quantity of lead in dry surf...

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How much lead must be in the paint to be considered contaminated? greater than or equal to 1.0 mg/cm2 or 0.5% by weight What did Title X do? -Shifted the federal government's focus from LBP to LBP hazards -mandated action by many branches of federal govt to reduce lead hazards in housing ...

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Permanent abatement options include... Paint removal, component removal, enclosure, encapsulation Lead Inspector A certified individual who conducts a surface-by-surface investigation to determine the presence of lead-based paint. Lead-based paint 1 mg/cm2 5000micrograms/g = 5000p...

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HUD Guidelines What Federal document serves as an overall guideline for performing inspections, risk assessments, and abatement activities? chelation therapy A child may be treated for lead poisoning by using... Identify LBP hazards The purpose of a lead risk assessment is to? ...

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EPA and WI DHS Lead Based Paint Definition ≥0.5% ≥1.0 mg/cm2 Nationally houses built before 1978_______ have lead based pain 75% XRF X-ray fluorescence Factors that should be considered for XRF: - Substrate Correction - inconclusive range - measuring K & L shell readi...

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True or False you should always include inconclusive lead results in a HUD report. False, never include inconclusive results True or False, at home test kit results can only be included in a report if they indicate that a home has lead. False, at home test kits can only be included in repor...

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Lead-based paint (LBP) Any varnish, shallac, or coating that contains either- 1.0 mg/cm2 - 0.5 % by weight - 5000 ppm - Older instruments could not read accurately at 0.7, so the lead standard was updated to 1.0 Dust sample clearance values - Floors: 40 μg/ft2 > 10 μg/ft2 (10 μg/ft2 i...

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lead based paint 1mg/cm^2 or .5% by weight title X aka Residential Lead-Based Paint Hazard Reduction Act of 1992 -shifted focus of federal legislation from acting on existing lead-based paint hazards to preventing new hazards from occurring -has regs governing the training and certifcatio...

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What percentage of lead is in drinking water for children? 20% What does Title X focus on? Focuses attention on source of lead that could poison children. What areas in the waterline produce high lead levels in water? Poorly Soldered joints where brass fittings are. With insp...

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Risk Assessment/ On site investigation of a residential dwelling for lead-based paint hazards • Lead based paint/ any varnish paint shellac or other coating that contains that equal to or access to 1.0 milligrams centimeters squared • lead based paint hazard -a condition in which e...

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Permanent abatement options include... Paint removal, component removal, enclosure, encapsulation What agencies focus on childhood lead poisoning prevention? CDPH, HUD, EPA What is the CAL OSHA Standard for lead? Title 8 CCR 1532.1 What is the Guidelines for the Evaluation an...

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Lead was used in paint because it Adds durability and serves as a drying agent. Lead is sometimes found in drinking water because lead is in Pipe solder and plumbing fixtures. What form of lead is often found in house paint? WHITE LEAD How much lead must be present in a paint...

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Water Lead Action Level 5 ppb Soil High Contact Area Action Level 400 ppm Soil General Action Level 1200 ppm Soil Abatement Level 5000 ppm Soil IDPH Regulatory Level 1000 ppm Paint Chip - HUD hazard level 5000 ppm or 0.5% Lead by weight Consumer Produc...

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1978 The year lead paint was banned in all residential paint in the U.S. Dust The primary form of LBL through which lead poisoning occurs in children in residential homes. Blood Lead Level Test The best way to determine whether a person/child has lead poisoning. .5% by weight...

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Lead Was used in paint because it: Ads Durability and serves as a drying agent Lead is sometimes found in drinking water because lead is in: Pipe solder and Plumbing fixtures. What form of lead is often found in house paint? White Lead How much lead must be present in a paint...

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Lead paint was banned in all residential paint in the U.S. beginning in ___________ 1978 The primary form of LBL through which lead poisoning occurs in children in residential homes is _________ Dust The best way to determine whether a person/child had lead poisoning is by obtaining ...

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which federal agencies are actively involved in developing lead regulations and policies? EPA, OSHA, HUD what role does OSHA play in the prevention of lead poisoning? inspects job sites for worker safety and sets standards for worker protection Three are REQUIRED by OSHA for exposure...

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Lead Was used in paint because it: Ads Durability and serves as a drying agent Lead is sometimes found in drinking water because lead is in: Pipe solder and Plumbing fixtures. What form of lead is often found in house paint? White Lead How much lead must be present in a paint...

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which federal agencies are actively involved in developing lead regulations and policies? EPA, OSHA, HUD what role does OSHA play in the prevention of lead poisoning? inspects job sites for worker safety and sets standards for worker protection Three are REQUIRED by OSHA for exposure...

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Identify the materials used for enclosure Drywall vinyl siding Plywood Paneling Caulk and sealant Hazards that exist in residential environments Lead dust Lead contaminated soil Peeling, chipping paint Folk remedies Describe how children are typically exposed to lead Hand to ...

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you find an unresponsive patient who is not breathing. after activating the emergency response system, you determine that there is no pulse. what is your next action? start chest compressions at a rate of at least 100/min. you are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. the blood press...

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BEST PLAYLIST I'VE FOUND FOR ALL HEART.ORG ACLS CODES! This is a good starting point for Jose (big Megacode at end): In which situation does bradycardia require treatment? Hypotension Which intervention is most appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole? Epinephrine ...

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what should be done to minimize interruptions in chest compressions during CPR? continue CPR while the defibrillator is charging what condition is an indication to stop of withhold resuscitative efforts? safety to threat providers? After verifying the absence of a pulse, you initiate...

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You find an unresponsive pt. who is not breathing. After activating the emergency response system, you determine there is no pulse. What is your next action? Start chest compressions of at least 100 per min. You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. The blood pressure is 92/50 mm...

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given rapidly during compressions IV/IO drug administration during CPR should be Potential oxygen toxicity What is the danger of routinely administering high concentrations of oxygen during post-cardiac arrest period for patients who achieve ROSC? NOT recommended for routine use Rec...

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Who Makes Up the Guidelines? American Heart Association Two subcommittees ACLS Subcommittees EKG Subcommittees In JAMA every 2 years Whats the most common cause of death in adults? Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) Narrowing of small blood vessels which supplies blood and oxygen to the hear...

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2nd degree AV block: Mobitz II 2nd degree AV block: Mobitz II 2nd degree AV block: Wenebach 2nd degree AV block: Wenebach 3rd degree AV block Atrial fibrillation Atrial flutter Asystole Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia Normal sinus Pulseless elect...

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you find an unresponsive patient who is not breathing. after activating the emergency response system, you determine that there is no pulse. what is your next action? start chest compressions at a rate of at least 100/min. you are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. the blood press...

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You find an unresponsive pt. who is not breathing. After activating the emergency response system, you determine there is no pulse. What is your next action? Start chest compressions of at least 100 per min. You are evaluating a 58 year old man with chest pain. The BP is 92/50 and a heart ra...

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During post-cardiac arrest care, which is the recommended duration of targeted temperature management after reaching the correct temperature range? At least 24 hours You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT scan was normal, with no signs...

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BEST PLAYLIST I'VE FOUND FOR ALL HEART.ORG ACLS CODES! This is a good starting point for Jose (big Megacode at end): In which situation does bradycardia require treatment? Hypotension Which intervention is most appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole? Epinephrine ...

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A patient experiences cardiac arrest, and the resuscitation team initiates ventilations using a bag-valve-mask (BVM) resuscitator. The development of which condition during the provision of care would lead the team to suspect that improper BVM technique is being used? Select the correct answer to t...

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You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT was normal with no sign of hemorrhage. The patient does not have any contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which treatment is best? a. start fibrinolytic therapy ASAP b. hold fibrinolytic therapy f...

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A 48-year-old man became unresponsive shortly after presenting to you with nausea and generalized chest discomfort. You observe gasping breathing and are unsure if you feel a pulse. You should know: A. Call for help and begin chest compressions. B. Wait until breathing stops and then check again f...

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ASHI CPR EXAM STUDY QUESTIONS 2023 |36 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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Sudden cardiac arrest in an adult is MOST LIKELY caused by Ventricular fibrillation The "chain of survival" is used: To describe the most effective approach for treating sudden cardiac arrest The links in the "chain of survival" in children is slightly different than for adults a...

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Start CPR, beginning with? Compression rate? Where is hand placement? Compression depth? Chest compression. 100-120 compressions/minute. Mid-nipple line and lower half of breastbone. 2 inches to 2.4 inches depth What to do before approaching a patient? Start CPR after co...

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A 12-year-old child being evaluated in the pediatric intensive care unit displays the following ECG waveform. The team interprets this as which arrhythmia? second degree Laboratory tests are ordered for a child who has been vomiting for 3 days and is diaphoretic, tachypneic, lethargic and ...

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When performing CPR on an unresponsive choking victim what modification should you incorporate? Each time you open the airway look for the obstructing object Members of the team know their boundaries and ask for help before the resuscitation attempt worsens. Match this statement with the mos...

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Ventricular Tachycardia A patient is being treated in the emergency department and is determined to have NSTE-ACS. Invasive management is planned based on which finding? - Ventricular Tachycardia - Atrial Fibrillation - Ventricular Fibrillation - Atrial Tachycardia On the lowe...

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Within the first 10 minutes, on the basis of the patient showing symptoms suggestive of myocardial ischemia, what will your first actions include (if not completed by EMS before arrival)? o Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) o Administer a blood thinner o Administer aspirin and establish IV...

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ALS - early drugs - Adrenaline - dose and dilution? 1mg 10ml of 1:10,000 1ml of 1 in 1,000 ALS - early drugs - drug A for thrombolysis for suspected or proven cardiac arrest due to PE Tenecteplase 500 - 600 mcg/kg IV by bolus TeN CuT PLeaSe ALS - early drugs - adrenaline in sh...

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A concept that helps to promote effective and efficient teamwork and reduce the likelihood of errors is called _____. Crew resource management Which tasks are responsibilities of the team leader? Sets clear expectations Assigns Roles Facilitates a debriefing session When should...

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As the only lifeguard performing CPR on a & year old child, you would perform cycles of: 30 chest compressions and 2 ventilations Which of the following would you identify as the universal sign that a conscious person is choking? Clutching the throat The patron asks, "Should we move...

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PPE Personal Protective Equipment FAST Face, Arm, Speech, Time EAP Emergency Action Plan AED Automated External Defibrillator SAMPLE 1. Signs/Symptoms 2. Allergies 3. Medications 4. Past History 5. Last Oral Intake 6. Events leading to injury/illness FIND...

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A patient's ECG reveals a narrow QRS complex with a regular rhythm, indicating a narrow-complex supraventricular tachyarrhythmia. The patient is hemodynamically stable. Which intervention would be initiated first? Vagal maneuvers For a patient who is hemodynamically stable and experiencing a na...

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While assessing an unresponsive adult who has been pulled from the water, you find that the patient has only occasional gasps, no definitive pulse and no severe life-threatening bleeding. Which of the following should you do next? Provide 2 ventilations and begin CPR An adult choking victim ...

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A patient presents to the emergency department with signs and symptoms suggestive of ACS. The 12-lead ECG shows T-wave inversion of less than 2 mm. To which clinical category would you assign this patient? Which conditions contribute to the pathophysiology of ACS? 1. Development of an occlus...

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You use critical thinking when you: Perform a rapid assessment and determine a course of action. Anticipate roles and functions as part of a team based on the patient's presentation and condition. Re-evaluate the situation for changes, interpret these changes and modify care accordingly. ...

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A 12-year-old is being treated in the urgent care clinic. The mother reports that the child came home from school yesterday with a high fever, vomiting and multiple episodes of watery diarrhea. The healthcare provider obtains a rhythm strip and notes the following waveform. The provider interprets t...

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A 4-month old infant is brought to the emergency department in cardiac arrest. Which condition would the team identify as the most common cause of cardiac arrest in an infant of this age? sudden infant death syndrome is the most common cause in infants younger than 6 months of age. The PALS ...

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when to perform Basic Life Support for Adults? When the heart and normal breathing have stopped what actions are required after confirming the patient needs BLS? Basic life support (BLS) for a patient in cardiac arrest includes high-quality CPR and the use of an AED. BLS also includes the d...

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CPR/AED protocol infant someone under the age of 1 CPR/AED protocol child age of 1 to the onset of puberty as evidenced by breast development in girls and underarm hair development in boys (usually around the age of 12). BUT be careful because the AED pad varies by age and weight. CP...

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1 rescuer compression to breath ratio in pediatrics? 30:2 2 rescuer compression to breath ratio in pediatrics? 15:2 You need to provide rescue breaths to a child victim with a pulse. What is the appropriate rate for delivering breaths? A.) 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds B.) 2 breath...

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critical thinking thinking clearly & rationally to identify the connection between information & actions problem solving the ability to use readily available resources to find solutions to challenging situations or issues that arise communication includes verbal messages & nonverbal...

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When editing a category list in Chronicles such as the Allergy Reaction category list, you may see the following message: "Release Range: All Customer Owned". Part I: What does this message indicate? Choose only ONE answer. A. This category list is a System list maintained by Epic and customer...

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What record controls details within activities like the tabs in Chart Review, or the default report in Snapshot? Profiles If you wanted to know the record name of the Snapshot report, how could you find that out? Go to Session Information Report and click the link to Enable Report and Print...

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Chronicles-like a filing cabinet Epic's database management system. Master files, INI Master files are like drawers Chronicles is divided into __________ like patient and diagnosis. Each has a three letter identifier called _________. 900 There are over ________ master files in Ep...

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Name two things that are defined by your role record. Roles define your default Startup Activity, the Hyperspace toolbar, options under the Epic button, the maximum number of workspaces a user can have open, automatic timeout settings, and whether your user's last login department will default the...

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Masterfiles that are constantly modified are... "Dynamic" Masterfiles only updated by Administrators are... "Administrative" or "static" Examples of where reports are... Chart Review, SnapShot, Summary, to format InBasket messages, labels and prescriptions, for read-only secti...

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to add a new insurance to the system that dose not exist select a generic coverage and enter information from the card when creating a new coverage record in the system you must choose the correct ( 2 answers) payer and plan true or false a patient can have more then one guarantor ac...

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USER What record must be created in order for a person to log in to Epic? PROVIDER What record must be created for a person or resource that meets certain clinical criteria? SCHEDULABLE,CREDENTIALED, AUTHORIZES ORDERS REFERS TO/FROM What clinical criteria might be met for a user w...

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When editing a category list in Chronicles such as the Allergy Reaction category list, you may see the following message: "Release Range: All Customer Owned". Part I: What does this message indicate? Choose only ONE answer. A. This category list is a System list maintained by Epic and customer...

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What record controls details within activities like the tabs in Chart Review, or the default report in Snapshot? Profiles If you wanted to know the record name of the Snapshot report, how could you find that out? Go to Session Information Report and click the link to Enable Report and Print...

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Workflow Engine -impacts the configuration of the clinical workspace a user sees in Hyperspace -Linked to most specific profile to be considered by system -composed of conditions and directives (If, then statements) Directive "Then" Statement -tells the WE what to do if the rule matche...

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