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4 rounds 
the number of times you should comb through the lashes to check for separation of the lashes and stickies 
 
 
 
Straight Tweezers 
tweezers used to hold the side lashes away from the main isolated lash 
 
 
 
Curved Tweezers 
used to isolate the lash that you will then be placing on eyela...
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the number of times you should comb through the lashes to check for separation of the lashes and stickies 
 
 
 
Straight Tweezers 
tweezers used to hold the side lashes away from the main isolated lash 
 
 
 
Curved Tweezers 
used to isolate the lash that you will then be placing on eyela...
single use items 
an item that is pourus & constructed of cloth, wood, or other absorbant material having rough surfaces 
 
 
 
chlorine bleach solution for LOW level 
Gallon of bleach & 2 teaspoons of water 
 
 
 
Multi-use 
An item constructed of hard materials with smooth surface such as metal, g...
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an item that is pourus & constructed of cloth, wood, or other absorbant material having rough surfaces 
 
 
 
chlorine bleach solution for LOW level 
Gallon of bleach & 2 teaspoons of water 
 
 
 
Multi-use 
An item constructed of hard materials with smooth surface such as metal, g...
Cleaning 
The process of using soap and water or detergent and water to remove all visible dirt debris and many disease causing germs. 
 
 
 
Disinfection 
A chemical process that uses specific products to destroy harmful organisms (except bacterial spores) on environmental surfaces. 
 
 
 
Steriliz...
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Add to cartCleaning 
The process of using soap and water or detergent and water to remove all visible dirt debris and many disease causing germs. 
 
 
 
Disinfection 
A chemical process that uses specific products to destroy harmful organisms (except bacterial spores) on environmental surfaces. 
 
 
 
Steriliz...
The form that notifies the buyer and user of potential health and safety hazards associated with its use is a_________. 
MSDS sheets 
 
 
 
MSDS means 
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) 
 
 
 
__________ is the main ingredient in most eyelash extensions adhesives today. 
Cyanoacrylate 
 
 
 
_______...
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Add to cartThe form that notifies the buyer and user of potential health and safety hazards associated with its use is a_________. 
MSDS sheets 
 
 
 
MSDS means 
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) 
 
 
 
__________ is the main ingredient in most eyelash extensions adhesives today. 
Cyanoacrylate 
 
 
 
_______...
A razor that is fitted with a guard close to the cutting edge 
safety razor 
 
 
 
Cosmetology does not include what service 
threading 
 
 
 
How old do you have to be to be eligible for a license? 
17 
 
 
 
How many hours do you have to have to obtain a instructor license? 
750 hours (at least 18...
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Add to cartA razor that is fitted with a guard close to the cutting edge 
safety razor 
 
 
 
Cosmetology does not include what service 
threading 
 
 
 
How old do you have to be to be eligible for a license? 
17 
 
 
 
How many hours do you have to have to obtain a instructor license? 
750 hours (at least 18...
Application Fee For Operator License 
$50 
 
 
 
Application Fee For Specialty License- Esthetician, Manicurist, Eyelash Extension 
$50 
 
 
 
Application Fee For Specialty Certificate- Hair Weaving 
$50 
 
 
 
Application Fee For Student Permit 
$25 
 
 
 
Application Fee For Instructor License 
$6...
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Add to cartApplication Fee For Operator License 
$50 
 
 
 
Application Fee For Specialty License- Esthetician, Manicurist, Eyelash Extension 
$50 
 
 
 
Application Fee For Specialty Certificate- Hair Weaving 
$50 
 
 
 
Application Fee For Student Permit 
$25 
 
 
 
Application Fee For Instructor License 
$6...
how often does the risk-based department inspect each shop or other facility that holds a license, certificate, or permit in which the practice of barbering or cosmetology? 
At least once every 2 years 
 
 
 
The department shall deny anyone or revoke a certificate, license, or permit if? 
Someone a...
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Add to carthow often does the risk-based department inspect each shop or other facility that holds a license, certificate, or permit in which the practice of barbering or cosmetology? 
At least once every 2 years 
 
 
 
The department shall deny anyone or revoke a certificate, license, or permit if? 
Someone a...
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CADA CUANDO SE DEBE RENOVAR SU LICENCIA DE EXTENSIONES DE PESTAÑAS? 
CADA DOS AÑOS 
 
 
 
CUANTAS HORAS DE EDUCACION CONTINUA SON REQUERIDAS PARA LA RENOVACION DE SU LICENCIA? 
4 HORAS 
 
 
 
CON CUANTO TIEMPO DEBE AVISAR AL DEPARTAMENTO DE LICENSIAS EN CASO DE CAMBIO DE NOMBRE O DIRECCION 
CON 30...
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Add to cartCADA CUANDO SE DEBE RENOVAR SU LICENCIA DE EXTENSIONES DE PESTAÑAS? 
CADA DOS AÑOS 
 
 
 
CUANTAS HORAS DE EDUCACION CONTINUA SON REQUERIDAS PARA LA RENOVACION DE SU LICENCIA? 
4 HORAS 
 
 
 
CON CUANTO TIEMPO DEBE AVISAR AL DEPARTAMENTO DE LICENSIAS EN CASO DE CAMBIO DE NOMBRE O DIRECCION 
CON 30...
Operator License 
$50 
 
 
 
Specialty License--Esthetician, Manicurist, Esthetician/Manicurist, Eyelash Extension 
$50 
 
 
 
Specialty Certificate--Hair Weaving, Wig 
$50 
 
 
 
Student Permit 
$25 
 
 
 
Instructor License 
$60 
 
 
 
Instructor Specialty License--Esthetician, Manicurist, Estheti...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartOperator License 
$50 
 
 
 
Specialty License--Esthetician, Manicurist, Esthetician/Manicurist, Eyelash Extension 
$50 
 
 
 
Specialty Certificate--Hair Weaving, Wig 
$50 
 
 
 
Student Permit 
$25 
 
 
 
Instructor License 
$60 
 
 
 
Instructor Specialty License--Esthetician, Manicurist, Estheti...
What is a purchase order, task order, or other contract between a prime contractor and another business to support the prime contract and to which the government has no contractual relationship, i.e., no privity? 
Subcontract 
 
 
 
Which of the following are key, recommended resources for subcontra...
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Add to cartWhat is a purchase order, task order, or other contract between a prime contractor and another business to support the prime contract and to which the government has no contractual relationship, i.e., no privity? 
Subcontract 
 
 
 
Which of the following are key, recommended resources for subcontra...
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CLC 059 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS
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When FAR 52.244-6 is included in noncommercial contracts, it identifies the clauses to be included in what kinds of subcontracts? 
Subcontracts for commercial or non-developmental items. 
 
 
 
How will the inclusion of the flow-down clauses in CD 2018-O0021 or FAR 52.244-6 impact post-award subcont...
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Add to cartWhen FAR 52.244-6 is included in noncommercial contracts, it identifies the clauses to be included in what kinds of subcontracts? 
Subcontracts for commercial or non-developmental items. 
 
 
 
How will the inclusion of the flow-down clauses in CD 2018-O0021 or FAR 52.244-6 impact post-award subcont...
Small businesses operate in an environment that includes a variety of entities, each with its own interests and influence on small business participation in Government acquisition 
Congress generates the legislation that impacts acquisition regulations and policy. 
 
Since the Depression of the 1930...
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Add to cartSmall businesses operate in an environment that includes a variety of entities, each with its own interests and influence on small business participation in Government acquisition 
Congress generates the legislation that impacts acquisition regulations and policy. 
 
Since the Depression of the 1930...
Mounted Reconnaissance 
-enables a more rapid tempo while increasing the potential compromise of 
reconnaissance efforts. Takes advantage of standoff capabilities provided by 
surveillance and weapon systems to observe and engage from greater distances and or the speed associated 
with mounted movem...
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Add to cartMounted Reconnaissance 
-enables a more rapid tempo while increasing the potential compromise of 
reconnaissance efforts. Takes advantage of standoff capabilities provided by 
surveillance and weapon systems to observe and engage from greater distances and or the speed associated 
with mounted movem...
acceptable use policy (AUP) 
A document that stipulates restrictions and practices that a user must agree in order to use organizational computing and network resources. 
 
 
 
acceptance 
When an organization decides to accept a risk because the cost of avoiding the risk outweighs the potential los...
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Add to cartacceptable use policy (AUP) 
A document that stipulates restrictions and practices that a user must agree in order to use organizational computing and network resources. 
 
 
 
acceptance 
When an organization decides to accept a risk because the cost of avoiding the risk outweighs the potential los...
Utilitarianism 
idea that the goal of society should be to bring about the greatest happiness for the greatest number of people 
 
 
 
Consequentialism 
An ethical system that determines the goodness or evilness from the effect or result of an act. 
 
 
 
Utilitarianism/Consequentialism 
utilitarian...
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Add to cartUtilitarianism 
idea that the goal of society should be to bring about the greatest happiness for the greatest number of people 
 
 
 
Consequentialism 
An ethical system that determines the goodness or evilness from the effect or result of an act. 
 
 
 
Utilitarianism/Consequentialism 
utilitarian...
Fair Credit Reporting Act 
regulates the operations of credit reporting bureaus. 
 
 
 
Right to Financial Privacy Act 
protects the financial records of financial institution customers from unauthorized scrutiny by the federal government. 
 
 
 
Gramm Leach Bliley Act (GLBA) 
established mandatory ...
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Add to cartFair Credit Reporting Act 
regulates the operations of credit reporting bureaus. 
 
 
 
Right to Financial Privacy Act 
protects the financial records of financial institution customers from unauthorized scrutiny by the federal government. 
 
 
 
Gramm Leach Bliley Act (GLBA) 
established mandatory ...
D333 Pre-assessment Ethic in Technology |164 questions and answers 2023
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Malware that stops you from using your computer until you meet certain demands is categorized as: 
Ransomware 
 
 
 
Flooding a target website with automated requests for data in order to reduce its usefulness for legitimate users is called: 
DDoS attack 
 
 
 
Using fraudulent emails in order to tr...
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Add to cartMalware that stops you from using your computer until you meet certain demands is categorized as: 
Ransomware 
 
 
 
Flooding a target website with automated requests for data in order to reduce its usefulness for legitimate users is called: 
DDoS attack 
 
 
 
Using fraudulent emails in order to tr...
right of privacy 
"the right to be left alone -- the most comprehensive of rights, and the right most valued by a free people 
 
 
 
information privacy 
The combination of communications privacy (the ability to communicate with others without those communications being monitored by other persons o...
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Add to cartright of privacy 
"the right to be left alone -- the most comprehensive of rights, and the right most valued by a free people 
 
 
 
information privacy 
The combination of communications privacy (the ability to communicate with others without those communications being monitored by other persons o...
Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) 
An agreement of the World Trade Organization that requires member governments to ensure that intellectual property rights can be enforced under their laws and that penalties for infringement are tough enough to deter further...
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Add to cartAgreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) 
An agreement of the World Trade Organization that requires member governments to ensure that intellectual property rights can be enforced under their laws and that penalties for infringement are tough enough to deter further...
Two programmers disagree about which philosophical theory is best suited for their autonomous vehicles. One programmer suggests their vehicle should always choose the greatest good for the greatest number of people. 
 
Which philosophical theory encapsulates this stance? 
 
Utilitarianism 
 
 
 
Wh...
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Add to cartTwo programmers disagree about which philosophical theory is best suited for their autonomous vehicles. One programmer suggests their vehicle should always choose the greatest good for the greatest number of people. 
 
Which philosophical theory encapsulates this stance? 
 
Utilitarianism 
 
 
 
Wh...
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Add to cartAMMO 49 |35 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.
Ammo 49 2023 oct exam questions with 100% correct answers.
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Add to cartAmmo 49 2023 oct exam questions with 100% correct answers.
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Add to cartAMMO 49 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.
AMMO 49 study guide with 100% correct answers
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Add to cartAMMO 49 study guide with 100% correct answers
What are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? 
-Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations 
-Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer 
-Keeping site maps up to date 
 
 
 
What is the correct order of the five steps in th...
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Add to cartWhat are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? 
-Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations 
-Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer 
-Keeping site maps up to date 
 
 
 
What is the correct order of the five steps in th...
AMMO 49 TEST QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS.
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--- checks all landfill items before putting them in the dumpster 
--- open all cans, boxes, and container, and remove both cap ends on fiber, and plastic container 
--- removes or obliterate explosive labels and markings 
What tasks does the Ammunition Handler do to process a unit 's residue turn-...
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Add to cart--- checks all landfill items before putting them in the dumpster 
--- open all cans, boxes, and container, and remove both cap ends on fiber, and plastic container 
--- removes or obliterate explosive labels and markings 
What tasks does the Ammunition Handler do to process a unit 's residue turn-...
Who is responsible for reviewing ammunition issue authorization form? 
Stock Control Specialist 
 
 
 
What is DA Form 1687 used for? 
Identifies who is authorized to receive the ammunition issue. 
 
 
 
How does the Stock Control Specialist know what ammunition items the unit requires for the train...
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Add to cartWho is responsible for reviewing ammunition issue authorization form? 
Stock Control Specialist 
 
 
 
What is DA Form 1687 used for? 
Identifies who is authorized to receive the ammunition issue. 
 
 
 
How does the Stock Control Specialist know what ammunition items the unit requires for the train...
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Add to cartAMMO 45 EXAM WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
Military Munitions (MM) 
includes all items (such as bullets, bombs, projectiles, and grenades) produced and used by or for the U.S. Department of Defense and its Armed Services for national defense and security purposes. 
 
 
 
MM also includes items under the control of the Department of Energy. 
...
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Add to cartMilitary Munitions (MM) 
includes all items (such as bullets, bombs, projectiles, and grenades) produced and used by or for the U.S. Department of Defense and its Armed Services for national defense and security purposes. 
 
 
 
MM also includes items under the control of the Department of Energy. 
...
Types of hazmat transportation 
land (highway/rail) 
sea 
air 
 
 
 
Define hazmat 
any material or substance capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property when transported. 
 
 
 
What training does the HAZMAT Familiarization and Safety in Transportation course provide? 
ap...
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Add to cartTypes of hazmat transportation 
land (highway/rail) 
sea 
air 
 
 
 
Define hazmat 
any material or substance capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property when transported. 
 
 
 
What training does the HAZMAT Familiarization and Safety in Transportation course provide? 
ap...
AMMO 49 WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS VERIFIED FOR ACCURACY 2023
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Ammo 51 test questions with verified solutions.
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Ammo 51 test questions with verified solutions.
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Add to cartAmmo 51 test questions with verified solutions.
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Add to cartAMMO-45 Exam 2023 with correct answers.
AMMO 49 WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+
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Which of the following topics are included in this hazmat familiarization and safety and transportation training? Select all that apply 
B, C, D 
 
 
 
Hazmat represents materials or substances capable of posing in unreasonable risk to: select all that apply 
A, B, D 
 
 
 
What type of penalty resu...
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Add to cartWhich of the following topics are included in this hazmat familiarization and safety and transportation training? Select all that apply 
B, C, D 
 
 
 
Hazmat represents materials or substances capable of posing in unreasonable risk to: select all that apply 
A, B, D 
 
 
 
What type of penalty resu...
Chemical Munitions and Agents are _____ 
Military Munitions 
 
 
 
Are DoD units outside the U.S. subject to RCRA? 
No 
 
 
 
States may impose less stringent requirements than those in the Military Munitions Rule (MMR). 
False 
 
 
 
Which of these is considered a used military munition? 
40mm gren...
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Add to cartChemical Munitions and Agents are _____ 
Military Munitions 
 
 
 
Are DoD units outside the U.S. subject to RCRA? 
No 
 
 
 
States may impose less stringent requirements than those in the Military Munitions Rule (MMR). 
False 
 
 
 
Which of these is considered a used military munition? 
40mm gren...
What are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? 
-Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations 
-Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer 
-Keeping site maps up to date 
 
 
 
What is the correct order of the five steps in th...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartWhat are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? 
-Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations 
-Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer 
-Keeping site maps up to date 
 
 
 
What is the correct order of the five steps in th...
You should keep emergency response record for at least 
3 years 
 
 
 
Who determines if an explosive emergency is a level 1 or level 2? 
Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) specialist 
 
 
 
A range has a large bin for storing munition waste. when the bin is full, it is sent to a TSDF for disposal. A...
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Add to cartYou should keep emergency response record for at least 
3 years 
 
 
 
Who determines if an explosive emergency is a level 1 or level 2? 
Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) specialist 
 
 
 
A range has a large bin for storing munition waste. when the bin is full, it is sent to a TSDF for disposal. A...
Which of the following is not a placard requirement when shipping HAZMAT? 
True 
 
 
 
Which form do you use to transfer ammunition to range personnel or other unit personnel? 
Da form 581 
 
 
 
Malfunctions include hang fires, duds, abnormal functioning and: 
Cook-offs 
 
 
 
Which form do you use...
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Add to cartWhich of the following is not a placard requirement when shipping HAZMAT? 
True 
 
 
 
Which form do you use to transfer ammunition to range personnel or other unit personnel? 
Da form 581 
 
 
 
Malfunctions include hang fires, duds, abnormal functioning and: 
Cook-offs 
 
 
 
Which form do you use...
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Following the catastrophic ordnance incident involving an Mk 24 aircraft parachute flare aboard the USS Oriskany (CVA-34) in 1966, the Flag Board of inquiry determined that the accident was partially due to? 
the lack of training 
 
 
 
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Qual/Cert...
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Add to cartFollowing the catastrophic ordnance incident involving an Mk 24 aircraft parachute flare aboard the USS Oriskany (CVA-34) in 1966, the Flag Board of inquiry determined that the accident was partially due to? 
the lack of training 
 
 
 
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Qual/Cert...
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What is the Purpose of the TAMIS Training AmmunitionsForecast Report(TAFR)? 
Specify yearly training ammunition needs for each unit 
 
 
 
Which units are allowed to pick up ammunition? 
SGT E5 and above. 
 
 
 
What is the purpose of DA Form 1687? 
Authorize specified individuals to request and/or ...
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Add to cartWhat is the Purpose of the TAMIS Training AmmunitionsForecast Report(TAFR)? 
Specify yearly training ammunition needs for each unit 
 
 
 
Which units are allowed to pick up ammunition? 
SGT E5 and above. 
 
 
 
What is the purpose of DA Form 1687? 
Authorize specified individuals to request and/or ...
What are lot numbers used for? 
Used by manufactures for quality control 
 
 
 
What are the parts to lot numbers? 
Manufactures Identification code (MIC) (identifies primary manufacturer of the round) 
Year/month of production (I not used) 
Lot Interfix number 
Tenth Position 
Sequence Number (roun...
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Add to cartWhat are lot numbers used for? 
Used by manufactures for quality control 
 
 
 
What are the parts to lot numbers? 
Manufactures Identification code (MIC) (identifies primary manufacturer of the round) 
Year/month of production (I not used) 
Lot Interfix number 
Tenth Position 
Sequence Number (roun...
What is ammo classified according to? 
physical properties 
 
 
 
how are explosives classified? 
combustion rate 
 
 
 
what are small arms ammo? 
ammo under 30mm 
 
 
 
How much do grenades weigh? 
1 - 1.5ibs 
 
 
 
What is an FSG and what does it do? 
Federal Supply Group; divides ammo into serie...
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Add to cartWhat is ammo classified according to? 
physical properties 
 
 
 
how are explosives classified? 
combustion rate 
 
 
 
what are small arms ammo? 
ammo under 30mm 
 
 
 
How much do grenades weigh? 
1 - 1.5ibs 
 
 
 
What is an FSG and what does it do? 
Federal Supply Group; divides ammo into serie...
What are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? 
-Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations 
-Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer 
-Keeping site maps up to date 
 
 
 
What is the correct order of the five steps in th...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartWhat are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? 
-Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations 
-Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer 
-Keeping site maps up to date 
 
 
 
What is the correct order of the five steps in th...
What are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? 
-Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations 
-Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer 
-Keeping site maps up to date 
 
 
 
What is the correct order of the five steps in th...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartWhat are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? 
-Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations 
-Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer 
-Keeping site maps up to date 
 
 
 
What is the correct order of the five steps in th...
SPC Chu Hurried to leave the ASP after loading the truck. She noticed some shipping papers were missing but didn't notify the ASP. after wrecking the truck, she learned the explosives were incompatible. What violation did she commit? 
Crimminal 
 
 
 
What type of hazard is identified by the image?...
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Add to cartSPC Chu Hurried to leave the ASP after loading the truck. She noticed some shipping papers were missing but didn't notify the ASP. after wrecking the truck, she learned the explosives were incompatible. What violation did she commit? 
Crimminal 
 
 
 
What type of hazard is identified by the image?...
Which regulation establishes the Department of Defense (DOD) policies and procedures for the transportation and movement of material? 
DTR 4500.9-R 
 
 
 
Which volume of the NAVSEA OP5 applies to the transportation of hazardous materials ashore? 
Volume 1 
 
 
 
Which Department of Transportation S...
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Add to cartWhich regulation establishes the Department of Defense (DOD) policies and procedures for the transportation and movement of material? 
DTR 4500.9-R 
 
 
 
Which volume of the NAVSEA OP5 applies to the transportation of hazardous materials ashore? 
Volume 1 
 
 
 
Which Department of Transportation S...
You are on guard duty at a category I missile and rocket storage area. Which additional restriction do you have to enforce? 
don't let just one authorized person in (two-person rule) 
 
 
 
While guarding a category II and III storage area, the following people ask to enter the restricted area. Whi...
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Add to cartYou are on guard duty at a category I missile and rocket storage area. Which additional restriction do you have to enforce? 
don't let just one authorized person in (two-person rule) 
 
 
 
While guarding a category II and III storage area, the following people ask to enter the restricted area. Whi...
ammunition 
any material that is fired, scattered, dropped, thrown, propelled, or denotation 
 
 
 
DODAC 
FSC and the DODIC (except repair and industrial) 
 
 
 
TB 
composed of NSN and DoD codes for ammo and parts 
 
 
 
SB 708-21 
contains FSGs and FSCs 
 
 
 
ammunition lot 
the quantity of amm...
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Add to cartammunition 
any material that is fired, scattered, dropped, thrown, propelled, or denotation 
 
 
 
DODAC 
FSC and the DODIC (except repair and industrial) 
 
 
 
TB 
composed of NSN and DoD codes for ammo and parts 
 
 
 
SB 708-21 
contains FSGs and FSCs 
 
 
 
ammunition lot 
the quantity of amm...
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Add to cartAmmo 49 2021 oct questions and answers.
When using specially controlled training ammunition items, a DA Form 5692 must be used. Who is required to sign this form? 
Commander 
 
 
 
The range ammunition NCO asks you to transfer two cases of unopened ammunition to him. Which form would you use to do this? 
DA Form 581 
 
 
 
Before leaving ...
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Add to cartWhen using specially controlled training ammunition items, a DA Form 5692 must be used. Who is required to sign this form? 
Commander 
 
 
 
The range ammunition NCO asks you to transfer two cases of unopened ammunition to him. Which form would you use to do this? 
DA Form 581 
 
 
 
Before leaving ...
When HC/D 1 4S does NOT require a label, it also does NOT require a 
Placard 
 
 
 
What is the purpose of the DD Form 626? 
To provide for mechanical inspection of the motor vehicle and cargo spaces 
 
 
 
Which code identifies the degree of security assigned to an item? 
CIIC 
 
 
 
A sailor needs...
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Add to cartWhen HC/D 1 4S does NOT require a label, it also does NOT require a 
Placard 
 
 
 
What is the purpose of the DD Form 626? 
To provide for mechanical inspection of the motor vehicle and cargo spaces 
 
 
 
Which code identifies the degree of security assigned to an item? 
CIIC 
 
 
 
A sailor needs...
Which of these true statements about bombs differentiate bombs from artillery ammo, rockets, and missiles? 
Bombs are not fired from a weapon 
 
 
 
Cartridges for shotguns and .50 caliber and smaller cartridges are which category of ammunition? 
Small arms ammunition 
 
 
 
Ammunition pallets may b...
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Add to cartWhich of these true statements about bombs differentiate bombs from artillery ammo, rockets, and missiles? 
Bombs are not fired from a weapon 
 
 
 
Cartridges for shotguns and .50 caliber and smaller cartridges are which category of ammunition? 
Small arms ammunition 
 
 
 
Ammunition pallets may b...
Why do childcare professionals observe and screen children? 
So they can facilitate the growth and development of every child in their program, detect early signs of development, delay or disability, and identify signs of child abuse or neglect. 
 
 
 
Observation 
an ongoing process in which child ...
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Add to cartWhy do childcare professionals observe and screen children? 
So they can facilitate the growth and development of every child in their program, detect early signs of development, delay or disability, and identify signs of child abuse or neglect. 
 
 
 
Observation 
an ongoing process in which child ...
Florida Law 
Bill passed and signed by FL legislators 
 
 
 
Rules 
implement, interpret, and describe law 
 
 
 
Ordinance 
local laws that only apply within jurisdiction 
 
 
 
Regulation 
law, rule, or ordinance to regulate conduct 
 
 
 
Florida Statutes 
permanent collection of the states laws,...
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Add to cartFlorida Law 
Bill passed and signed by FL legislators 
 
 
 
Rules 
implement, interpret, and describe law 
 
 
 
Ordinance 
local laws that only apply within jurisdiction 
 
 
 
Regulation 
law, rule, or ordinance to regulate conduct 
 
 
 
Florida Statutes 
permanent collection of the states laws,...
Regulation 
is a law, rule, ordinance, or other order prescribed by authority, especially to regulate conduct. 
 
 
 
Child care 
the care, protection, and supervision of a child for a period of less than 24 hours a day on a regular basis 
 
 
 
A child care program is either licensed, registered or...
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Add to cartRegulation 
is a law, rule, ordinance, or other order prescribed by authority, especially to regulate conduct. 
 
 
 
Child care 
the care, protection, and supervision of a child for a period of less than 24 hours a day on a regular basis 
 
 
 
A child care program is either licensed, registered or...
DCF 
Department of Children and Families 
 
 
 
DCF Responsibilities 
Administration of child care licensing and training 
 
Ensuring children are well cared for in a safe, healthy, positive, and educational environment by trained, qualified child care staff 
 
This agency determines state rules per...
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Add to cartDCF 
Department of Children and Families 
 
 
 
DCF Responsibilities 
Administration of child care licensing and training 
 
Ensuring children are well cared for in a safe, healthy, positive, and educational environment by trained, qualified child care staff 
 
This agency determines state rules per...
Appetite 
A desire to eat. 
 
 
 
Isolation Area 
A designated area for a child who becomes ill at the facility, which must be away from the other, healthy children. 
 
 
 
Safety Hazards 
Things in the environment that can be identified as dangerous to one's health and welfare. 
 
 
 
Communicable...
Preview 3 out of 23 pages
Add to cartAppetite 
A desire to eat. 
 
 
 
Isolation Area 
A designated area for a child who becomes ill at the facility, which must be away from the other, healthy children. 
 
 
 
Safety Hazards 
Things in the environment that can be identified as dangerous to one's health and welfare. 
 
 
 
Communicable...
What affect does quality early care on children? 
"...children who have high-quality care see academic benefits lasting into high school." 
 
 
 
DAP 
Developmentally Appropriate Practice focuses on children birth to eight years old and is made up of three principle components: age appropriateness...
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Add to cartWhat affect does quality early care on children? 
"...children who have high-quality care see academic benefits lasting into high school." 
 
 
 
DAP 
Developmentally Appropriate Practice focuses on children birth to eight years old and is made up of three principle components: age appropriateness...
Observation 
when a child care worker recognizes 
and notes an identifiable performance or behavior and uses instruments such as checklists, anecdotal records and running records. The instruments are used to measure progress against a standard and to share results 
with assessment experts. 
 
 
 
Sc...
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Add to cartObservation 
when a child care worker recognizes 
and notes an identifiable performance or behavior and uses instruments such as checklists, anecdotal records and running records. The instruments are used to measure progress against a standard and to share results 
with assessment experts. 
 
 
 
Sc...
Physical Abuse 
The mistreatment of a child by a person responsible for the child's welfare that results in injury or harm to the child 
 
 
 
Sexual Abuse 
Sexual contact or interaction between a child and an adult or older child. Includes indecent exposure, fondling, touching sexual organs, forci...
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Add to cartPhysical Abuse 
The mistreatment of a child by a person responsible for the child's welfare that results in injury or harm to the child 
 
 
 
Sexual Abuse 
Sexual contact or interaction between a child and an adult or older child. Includes indecent exposure, fondling, touching sexual organs, forci...
Health 
 
 
 
Appetite 
A desire to eat 
 
 
 
Impermeable Surface 
A surface that is resistant to water, chemicals and other fluids. Required in areas such as changing tables, playpens, cots, and sleeping mats. 
 
 
 
Safety hazards 
Things in the environment that can be identified as dangerous to ...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartHealth 
 
 
 
Appetite 
A desire to eat 
 
 
 
Impermeable Surface 
A surface that is resistant to water, chemicals and other fluids. Required in areas such as changing tables, playpens, cots, and sleeping mats. 
 
 
 
Safety hazards 
Things in the environment that can be identified as dangerous to ...
Growth 
specific body changed and increases in the child's size 
 
 
 
Babies can grow ___ inches in length and triple their birth weight 
10 
 
 
 
How many inches will a child grow per year after their first year? 
5 per year until about age 3 
 
 
 
How many inches will a child grow after 3 year...
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Add to cartGrowth 
specific body changed and increases in the child's size 
 
 
 
Babies can grow ___ inches in length and triple their birth weight 
10 
 
 
 
How many inches will a child grow per year after their first year? 
5 per year until about age 3 
 
 
 
How many inches will a child grow after 3 year...
Albert Bandura 
(Social Learning Theory) 
•Vicarious vs. Enactive 
(learning by watching vs. learning by doing) 
•Four Elements of Observational Learning: 
1. Attention 
2. Retention 
3. Production 
4. Motivation & Reinforcement 
•Four Sources of Self-Efficacy Appraisals: 
1. Actual Performanc...
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Add to cartAlbert Bandura 
(Social Learning Theory) 
•Vicarious vs. Enactive 
(learning by watching vs. learning by doing) 
•Four Elements of Observational Learning: 
1. Attention 
2. Retention 
3. Production 
4. Motivation & Reinforcement 
•Four Sources of Self-Efficacy Appraisals: 
1. Actual Performanc...
child care 
The care, protection, and supervision of a child, for a period of less than 24hrs a day on a regular basis, which supplements parental care, enrichment, and health supervision for the child, in accordance with his or her individual needs, and for which a payment, fee or grant is made for...
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Add to cartchild care 
The care, protection, and supervision of a child, for a period of less than 24hrs a day on a regular basis, which supplements parental care, enrichment, and health supervision for the child, in accordance with his or her individual needs, and for which a payment, fee or grant is made for...
Florida Department of Children of Families 
This agency determines state rules pertaining to child care and enforces these rules by licensing and inspecting child care facilities. 
 
 
 
Local Fire Department 
This agency inspects child care facilities and educates child care professionals about min...
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Add to cartFlorida Department of Children of Families 
This agency determines state rules pertaining to child care and enforces these rules by licensing and inspecting child care facilities. 
 
 
 
Local Fire Department 
This agency inspects child care facilities and educates child care professionals about min...
Florida Law 
Bill passed and signed by FL legislators 
 
 
 
Rules 
implement, interpret, and describe law 
 
 
 
Ordinance 
local laws that only apply within jurisdiction 
 
 
 
Regulation 
law, rule, or ordinance to regulate conduct 
 
 
 
Florida Statutes 
permanent collection of the states laws,...
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Add to cartFlorida Law 
Bill passed and signed by FL legislators 
 
 
 
Rules 
implement, interpret, and describe law 
 
 
 
Ordinance 
local laws that only apply within jurisdiction 
 
 
 
Regulation 
law, rule, or ordinance to regulate conduct 
 
 
 
Florida Statutes 
permanent collection of the states laws,...
Florida Law 
Bill passed and signed by FL legislators 
 
 
 
Rules 
implement, interpret, and describe law 
 
 
 
Ordinance 
local laws that only apply within jurisdiction 
 
 
 
Regulation 
law, rule, or ordinance to regulate conduct 
 
 
 
Florida Statutes 
permanent collection of the states laws,...
Preview 2 out of 14 pages
Add to cartFlorida Law 
Bill passed and signed by FL legislators 
 
 
 
Rules 
implement, interpret, and describe law 
 
 
 
Ordinance 
local laws that only apply within jurisdiction 
 
 
 
Regulation 
law, rule, or ordinance to regulate conduct 
 
 
 
Florida Statutes 
permanent collection of the states laws,...
Regulation 
is a law, rule, ordinance, or other order prescribed by authority, especially to regulate conduct. 
 
 
 
Child care 
the care, protection, and supervision of a child for a period of less than 24 hours a day on a regular basis 
 
 
 
A child care program is either licensed, registered or...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartRegulation 
is a law, rule, ordinance, or other order prescribed by authority, especially to regulate conduct. 
 
 
 
Child care 
the care, protection, and supervision of a child for a period of less than 24 hours a day on a regular basis 
 
 
 
A child care program is either licensed, registered or...
What is a theory? 
A set of facts or principles analyzed in relation to one another and used to explain phenomena(a fact or behavior that can be observed) 
 
 
 
How do you create a positive environment for children in your care? 
*Ensure learning centers have ample space for movement. 
*Reduce the ...
Preview 3 out of 23 pages
Add to cartWhat is a theory? 
A set of facts or principles analyzed in relation to one another and used to explain phenomena(a fact or behavior that can be observed) 
 
 
 
How do you create a positive environment for children in your care? 
*Ensure learning centers have ample space for movement. 
*Reduce the ...
What is a theory? 
A set of facts or principles analyzed in relation to one another and used to explain phenomena(a fact or behavior that can be observed) 
 
 
 
How do you create a positive environment for children in your care? 
*Ensure learning centers have ample space for movement. 
*Reduce the ...
Preview 4 out of 56 pages
Add to cartWhat is a theory? 
A set of facts or principles analyzed in relation to one another and used to explain phenomena(a fact or behavior that can be observed) 
 
 
 
How do you create a positive environment for children in your care? 
*Ensure learning centers have ample space for movement. 
*Reduce the ...
Developmentally appropriate practice, or DAP, 
is a concept developed by the National Association for the Education of Young Children (NAEYC). 
 
 
 
Developmentally Appropriate Practice 
focuses on children birth to eight years old and is made up of three principle components: age appropriateness, ...
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Add to cartDevelopmentally appropriate practice, or DAP, 
is a concept developed by the National Association for the Education of Young Children (NAEYC). 
 
 
 
Developmentally Appropriate Practice 
focuses on children birth to eight years old and is made up of three principle components: age appropriateness, ...
Three children die of child abuse in the home in the US each ___ 
day 
 
 
 
How many people report child abuse when faced with an actual situation? 
1/3 
 
 
 
What is the single leading cause of death for children ages 4 and younger? 
Child Abuse & Neglect 
 
 
 
On average, child abuse is reporte...
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Add to cartThree children die of child abuse in the home in the US each ___ 
day 
 
 
 
How many people report child abuse when faced with an actual situation? 
1/3 
 
 
 
What is the single leading cause of death for children ages 4 and younger? 
Child Abuse & Neglect 
 
 
 
On average, child abuse is reporte...
Regulation 
is a law, rule, ordinance, or other order prescribed by authority, especially to regulate conduct. 
 
 
 
Child care 
the care, protection, and supervision of a child for a period of less than 24 hours a day on a regular basis 
 
 
 
A child care program is either licensed, registered or...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartRegulation 
is a law, rule, ordinance, or other order prescribed by authority, especially to regulate conduct. 
 
 
 
Child care 
the care, protection, and supervision of a child for a period of less than 24 hours a day on a regular basis 
 
 
 
A child care program is either licensed, registered or...
Why do childcare professionals observe and screen children? 
So they can facilitate the growth and development of every child in their program, detect early signs of development, delay or disability, and identify signs of child abuse or neglect. 
 
 
 
Observation 
an ongoing process in which child ...
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Add to cartWhy do childcare professionals observe and screen children? 
So they can facilitate the growth and development of every child in their program, detect early signs of development, delay or disability, and identify signs of child abuse or neglect. 
 
 
 
Observation 
an ongoing process in which child ...
Appetite 
A desire to eat. 
 
 
 
Isolation Area 
A designated area for a child who becomes ill at the facility, which must be away from the other, healthy children. 
 
 
 
Safety Hazards 
Things in the environment that can be identified as dangerous to one's health and welfare. 
 
 
 
Communicable...
Preview 3 out of 23 pages
Add to cartAppetite 
A desire to eat. 
 
 
 
Isolation Area 
A designated area for a child who becomes ill at the facility, which must be away from the other, healthy children. 
 
 
 
Safety Hazards 
Things in the environment that can be identified as dangerous to one's health and welfare. 
 
 
 
Communicable...
What agency approves new test methodologies, instruments, and reagents before they are available for purchase by consumers? 
FDA 
 
 
 
How often should biological safety hoods be inspected? 
Annually 
 
 
 
What is the minimum number of standards required for a standard curve? 
3 
 
 
 
What is the...
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Add to cartWhat agency approves new test methodologies, instruments, and reagents before they are available for purchase by consumers? 
FDA 
 
 
 
How often should biological safety hoods be inspected? 
Annually 
 
 
 
What is the minimum number of standards required for a standard curve? 
3 
 
 
 
What is the...
What is hemoglobin composed of? 
4 heme, 4 iron, 4 globins 
 
 
 
What disorder does a defect in heme synthesis lead to? 
Porphyria 
 
 
 
Porphyria 
Deficiency in the enzymes of the porphyrin pathway leads to insufficient production of heme. The principal problem in these deficiencies is the accumu...
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Add to cartWhat is hemoglobin composed of? 
4 heme, 4 iron, 4 globins 
 
 
 
What disorder does a defect in heme synthesis lead to? 
Porphyria 
 
 
 
Porphyria 
Deficiency in the enzymes of the porphyrin pathway leads to insufficient production of heme. The principal problem in these deficiencies is the accumu...
What are four types of centrifuges commonly used in the clinical lab? 
Tabletop, Micro, High-Speed, and Ultra. 
 
 
 
What does the daily maintenance of a centrifuge commonly consist of? 
Cleaned with 10% bleach 
 
 
 
What does the periodic maintenance of a centrifuge commonly consist of? 
Speed ch...
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Add to cartWhat are four types of centrifuges commonly used in the clinical lab? 
Tabletop, Micro, High-Speed, and Ultra. 
 
 
 
What does the daily maintenance of a centrifuge commonly consist of? 
Cleaned with 10% bleach 
 
 
 
What does the periodic maintenance of a centrifuge commonly consist of? 
Speed ch...
What term describes the morphology of organisms that vary in shape and size? 
Pleomorphic 
 
i.e. coccobacilli 
 
 
 
Bacteriology arrangements: 
-pairs (diplococci "N. Gon"; diplobacilli 
-chains (streptococci, streptobacilli) 
-grape like clusters (staphylococci) 
-group of four-tetrads (peptoco...
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Add to cartWhat term describes the morphology of organisms that vary in shape and size? 
Pleomorphic 
 
i.e. coccobacilli 
 
 
 
Bacteriology arrangements: 
-pairs (diplococci "N. Gon"; diplobacilli 
-chains (streptococci, streptobacilli) 
-grape like clusters (staphylococci) 
-group of four-tetrads (peptoco...
Which of the following aminoacidopathies is NOT caused by an enzyme deficiency? 
Choose one answer. 
a. phenylketonuria 
b. alkaptonuria 
c. maple syrup disease 
d. cystinuria 
d. cystinuria 
 
 
 
What method is most commonly used to measure total protein? 
Choose one answer. 
a. dye binding 
b. Kj...
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Add to cartWhich of the following aminoacidopathies is NOT caused by an enzyme deficiency? 
Choose one answer. 
a. phenylketonuria 
b. alkaptonuria 
c. maple syrup disease 
d. cystinuria 
d. cystinuria 
 
 
 
What method is most commonly used to measure total protein? 
Choose one answer. 
a. dye binding 
b. Kj...
What term describes the morphology of organisms that vary in shape and size? 
Pleomorphic 
 
 
 
Capsules are the basis of which test? 
Serotyping 
 
 
 
A mucoid colony on blood agar medium indicates that which of the following characteristics may be present? 
Organism has a capsule. 
 
 
 
What ar...
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Add to cartWhat term describes the morphology of organisms that vary in shape and size? 
Pleomorphic 
 
 
 
Capsules are the basis of which test? 
Serotyping 
 
 
 
A mucoid colony on blood agar medium indicates that which of the following characteristics may be present? 
Organism has a capsule. 
 
 
 
What ar...
Which of the four elements in proteins differentiated this class of substances from carbohydrates and lipids? 
Nitrogen 
 
 
 
Which of the proteins is soluble in water? 
Albumin 
 
 
 
How are amino acids joined together to form a chainlike structure? 
Peptide bonding 
 
 
 
Proteins may become den...
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Add to cartWhich of the four elements in proteins differentiated this class of substances from carbohydrates and lipids? 
Nitrogen 
 
 
 
Which of the proteins is soluble in water? 
Albumin 
 
 
 
How are amino acids joined together to form a chainlike structure? 
Peptide bonding 
 
 
 
Proteins may become den...
Which of the following is not an external defense mechanism of natural immunity that provides the human body with a defense against invading microorganisms? 
Bursa of Fabricius 
 
 
 
All of the following are external defense mechanisms of natural immunity that provides the human body with a defense...
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Add to cartWhich of the following is not an external defense mechanism of natural immunity that provides the human body with a defense against invading microorganisms? 
Bursa of Fabricius 
 
 
 
All of the following are external defense mechanisms of natural immunity that provides the human body with a defense...
What term describes the morphology of organisms that vary in shape and size? 
Pleomorphic 
 
 
 
Capsules are the basis of which test? 
Serotyping 
 
 
 
A mucoid colony on blood agar medium indicates that which of the following characteristics may be present? 
Organism has a capsule. 
 
 
 
What ar...
Preview 3 out of 21 pages
Add to cartWhat term describes the morphology of organisms that vary in shape and size? 
Pleomorphic 
 
 
 
Capsules are the basis of which test? 
Serotyping 
 
 
 
A mucoid colony on blood agar medium indicates that which of the following characteristics may be present? 
Organism has a capsule. 
 
 
 
What ar...
What consists of the gross renal anatomy? 
Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, and Urethra 
 
 
 
What is the anatomy of the Nephron? 
Glomerulus. proximal convoluted tubule, descending Loop of Henle, Ascending Loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, and collecting duct. 
 
 
 
What are the 3 primary functi...
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Add to cartWhat consists of the gross renal anatomy? 
Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, and Urethra 
 
 
 
What is the anatomy of the Nephron? 
Glomerulus. proximal convoluted tubule, descending Loop of Henle, Ascending Loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, and collecting duct. 
 
 
 
What are the 3 primary functi...
Specimens that can be analyzed for carbon dioxide 
1. Serum 
2. Plasma 
3. Whole blood 
 
 
 
What will happen if blood is exposed to air during specimen collection for pH and blood gases? 
p C O 2 decreases 
 
 
 
Henderson-Hasselbalch equation 
p H = p k a + log salt / acid 
 
 
 
What is the rati...
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Add to cartSpecimens that can be analyzed for carbon dioxide 
1. Serum 
2. Plasma 
3. Whole blood 
 
 
 
What will happen if blood is exposed to air during specimen collection for pH and blood gases? 
p C O 2 decreases 
 
 
 
Henderson-Hasselbalch equation 
p H = p k a + log salt / acid 
 
 
 
What is the rati...
Concerning antigen-antibody reactions, the prozone effect causes which of the following results? 
 
A. False positive 
B. False negative 
C. No reaction 
D. Mixed field reaction 
B. False negative 
 
 
 
The following characteristics are applicable to Interferon-Gamma Release Assays (IGRAs) except: ...
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Add to cartConcerning antigen-antibody reactions, the prozone effect causes which of the following results? 
 
A. False positive 
B. False negative 
C. No reaction 
D. Mixed field reaction 
B. False negative 
 
 
 
The following characteristics are applicable to Interferon-Gamma Release Assays (IGRAs) except: ...
Centrifuges (4) 
#1- Table top centrifuges are used in clinical labs to separate cells from serum or plasma. 
#2- Micro-centrifuges are small centrifuges used for small plastic conical containers with an integral snap cap. 
#3- High speed centrifuges reach speeds b/w 17,000 & 30,000 rpm. 
#4- Ultra ...
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Add to cartCentrifuges (4) 
#1- Table top centrifuges are used in clinical labs to separate cells from serum or plasma. 
#2- Micro-centrifuges are small centrifuges used for small plastic conical containers with an integral snap cap. 
#3- High speed centrifuges reach speeds b/w 17,000 & 30,000 rpm. 
#4- Ultra ...
All of the following blood donors would be permanently deferred except which one? 
38yr old male who received rabies vaccine after a dog bite 3mos ago 
 
 
 
What is the interval blood donations? 
8 weeks 
 
 
 
The oral temperature of a donor must not exceed which value? 
37.5C 99.5F 
 
 
 
What is...
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Add to cartAll of the following blood donors would be permanently deferred except which one? 
38yr old male who received rabies vaccine after a dog bite 3mos ago 
 
 
 
What is the interval blood donations? 
8 weeks 
 
 
 
The oral temperature of a donor must not exceed which value? 
37.5C 99.5F 
 
 
 
What is...
The diagnostic value of the reticulocyte count in the evaluation of anemia is that it determines the: 
Response and potential of the bone marrow 
 
 
 
The greatest risk for the manifestation of anomalies in maternal rubella infection during gestation is the: 
First trimester 
 
 
 
The hepatitis B ...
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Add to cartThe diagnostic value of the reticulocyte count in the evaluation of anemia is that it determines the: 
Response and potential of the bone marrow 
 
 
 
The greatest risk for the manifestation of anomalies in maternal rubella infection during gestation is the: 
First trimester 
 
 
 
The hepatitis B ...
HUD Guidelines 
What Federal document serves as an overall guideline for performing inspections, risk assessments, and abatement activities? 
 
 
 
chelation therapy 
A child may be treated for lead poisoning by using... 
 
 
 
Identify LBP hazards 
The purpose of a lead risk assessment is to? 
 
 
...
Preview 3 out of 16 pages
Add to cartHUD Guidelines 
What Federal document serves as an overall guideline for performing inspections, risk assessments, and abatement activities? 
 
 
 
chelation therapy 
A child may be treated for lead poisoning by using... 
 
 
 
Identify LBP hazards 
The purpose of a lead risk assessment is to? 
 
 
...
At which of the following ages are children in the most danger of lead exposure and the health effects from that exposure? 
1-3 years of age 
 
 
 
Lead may be absorbed through the intestines after it is ingested. What is the effect on the absorption of lead when people don't eat properly? 
More le...
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Add to cartAt which of the following ages are children in the most danger of lead exposure and the health effects from that exposure? 
1-3 years of age 
 
 
 
Lead may be absorbed through the intestines after it is ingested. What is the effect on the absorption of lead when people don't eat properly? 
More le...
1978 
When did they reduce to Lead Levels in consumer products 
 
 
 
The underside of a horizontal surface which projects beyond a wall line, such as an overhanging roof. 
What is a soffit? 
 
 
 
False 
T/F: The risk assessor should be involved in the process of selecting a contractor. 
 
 
 
1. T...
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Add to cart1978 
When did they reduce to Lead Levels in consumer products 
 
 
 
The underside of a horizontal surface which projects beyond a wall line, such as an overhanging roof. 
What is a soffit? 
 
 
 
False 
T/F: The risk assessor should be involved in the process of selecting a contractor. 
 
 
 
1. T...
ug/g 
micrograms per gram 
 
 
 
ug/ft2 
micrograms per foot squared(xrf) 
 
 
 
mg/cm2 
milligrams per centimeter squared (XRF) 
 
 
 
mg/dl 
milligrams per deciliter 
 
 
 
ug/m3 
microgram per deci-liter (quantity in blood) 
 
 
 
1% 
10,000 ppm 
 
 
 
allowed quantity of lead in dry surface pain...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cartug/g 
micrograms per gram 
 
 
 
ug/ft2 
micrograms per foot squared(xrf) 
 
 
 
mg/cm2 
milligrams per centimeter squared (XRF) 
 
 
 
mg/dl 
milligrams per deciliter 
 
 
 
ug/m3 
microgram per deci-liter (quantity in blood) 
 
 
 
1% 
10,000 ppm 
 
 
 
allowed quantity of lead in dry surface pain...
ug/g 
microgram per gram 
 
 
 
ug/ft2 
microgram per foot square (dust sampling) 
 
 
 
mg/cm2 
milligrams per centimeter squared (XRF) 
 
 
 
ug/dL 
microgram per deci-liter 
 
 
 
ug/m3 
microgram per deci-liter (quantity in blood) 
 
 
 
1% 
10,000 ppm 
 
 
 
Allowed quantity of lead in dry surf...
Preview 3 out of 19 pages
Add to cartug/g 
microgram per gram 
 
 
 
ug/ft2 
microgram per foot square (dust sampling) 
 
 
 
mg/cm2 
milligrams per centimeter squared (XRF) 
 
 
 
ug/dL 
microgram per deci-liter 
 
 
 
ug/m3 
microgram per deci-liter (quantity in blood) 
 
 
 
1% 
10,000 ppm 
 
 
 
Allowed quantity of lead in dry surf...
How much lead must be in the paint to be considered contaminated? 
greater than or equal to 1.0 mg/cm2 or 0.5% by weight 
 
 
 
What did Title X do? 
-Shifted the federal government's focus from LBP to LBP hazards 
-mandated action by many branches of federal govt to reduce lead hazards in housing ...
Preview 2 out of 14 pages
Add to cartHow much lead must be in the paint to be considered contaminated? 
greater than or equal to 1.0 mg/cm2 or 0.5% by weight 
 
 
 
What did Title X do? 
-Shifted the federal government's focus from LBP to LBP hazards 
-mandated action by many branches of federal govt to reduce lead hazards in housing ...
Permanent abatement options include... 
Paint removal, component removal, enclosure, encapsulation 
 
 
 
Lead Inspector 
A certified individual who conducts a surface-by-surface investigation 
to determine the presence of lead-based paint. 
 
 
 
Lead-based paint 
1 mg/cm2 
5000micrograms/g = 5000p...
Preview 4 out of 191 pages
Add to cartPermanent abatement options include... 
Paint removal, component removal, enclosure, encapsulation 
 
 
 
Lead Inspector 
A certified individual who conducts a surface-by-surface investigation 
to determine the presence of lead-based paint. 
 
 
 
Lead-based paint 
1 mg/cm2 
5000micrograms/g = 5000p...
HUD Guidelines 
What Federal document serves as an overall guideline for performing inspections, risk assessments, and abatement activities? 
 
 
 
chelation therapy 
A child may be treated for lead poisoning by using... 
 
 
 
Identify LBP hazards 
The purpose of a lead risk assessment is to? 
 
 
...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartHUD Guidelines 
What Federal document serves as an overall guideline for performing inspections, risk assessments, and abatement activities? 
 
 
 
chelation therapy 
A child may be treated for lead poisoning by using... 
 
 
 
Identify LBP hazards 
The purpose of a lead risk assessment is to? 
 
 
...
EPA and WI DHS Lead Based Paint Definition 
≥0.5% 
≥1.0 mg/cm2 
 
 
 
Nationally houses built before 1978_______ have lead based pain 
75% 
 
 
 
XRF 
X-ray fluorescence 
 
 
 
Factors that should be considered for XRF: 
- Substrate Correction 
- inconclusive range 
- measuring K & L shell readi...
Preview 2 out of 15 pages
Add to cartEPA and WI DHS Lead Based Paint Definition 
≥0.5% 
≥1.0 mg/cm2 
 
 
 
Nationally houses built before 1978_______ have lead based pain 
75% 
 
 
 
XRF 
X-ray fluorescence 
 
 
 
Factors that should be considered for XRF: 
- Substrate Correction 
- inconclusive range 
- measuring K & L shell readi...
True or False you should always include inconclusive lead results in a HUD report. 
False, never include inconclusive results 
 
 
 
True or False, at home test kit results can only be included in a report if they indicate that a home has lead. 
False, at home test kits can only be included in repor...
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Add to cartTrue or False you should always include inconclusive lead results in a HUD report. 
False, never include inconclusive results 
 
 
 
True or False, at home test kit results can only be included in a report if they indicate that a home has lead. 
False, at home test kits can only be included in repor...
US EPA MODEL LEAD INSPECTOR |564 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
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Add to cartUS EPA MODEL LEAD INSPECTOR |564 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
Lead-based paint (LBP) 
Any varnish, shallac, or coating that contains either- 1.0 mg/cm2 - 0.5 % by weight - 5000 ppm - Older instruments could not read accurately at 0.7, so the lead standard was updated to 1.0 
 
 
 
Dust sample clearance values 
- Floors: 40 μg/ft2 > 10 μg/ft2 (10 μg/ft2 i...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cartLead-based paint (LBP) 
Any varnish, shallac, or coating that contains either- 1.0 mg/cm2 - 0.5 % by weight - 5000 ppm - Older instruments could not read accurately at 0.7, so the lead standard was updated to 1.0 
 
 
 
Dust sample clearance values 
- Floors: 40 μg/ft2 > 10 μg/ft2 (10 μg/ft2 i...
lead based paint 
1mg/cm^2 or .5% by weight 
 
 
 
title X 
aka Residential Lead-Based Paint Hazard Reduction Act of 1992 
-shifted focus of federal legislation from acting on existing lead-based paint hazards to preventing new hazards from occurring 
-has regs governing the training and certifcatio...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartlead based paint 
1mg/cm^2 or .5% by weight 
 
 
 
title X 
aka Residential Lead-Based Paint Hazard Reduction Act of 1992 
-shifted focus of federal legislation from acting on existing lead-based paint hazards to preventing new hazards from occurring 
-has regs governing the training and certifcatio...
What percentage of lead is in drinking water for children? 
20% 
 
 
 
What does Title X focus on? 
Focuses attention on source of lead that could poison children. 
 
 
 
What areas in the waterline produce high lead levels in water? 
Poorly Soldered joints where brass fittings are. 
 
 
 
With insp...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cartWhat percentage of lead is in drinking water for children? 
20% 
 
 
 
What does Title X focus on? 
Focuses attention on source of lead that could poison children. 
 
 
 
What areas in the waterline produce high lead levels in water? 
Poorly Soldered joints where brass fittings are. 
 
 
 
With insp...
Risk Assessment/ On site investigation of a residential dwelling for lead-based paint hazards 
 
 
 
• Lead based paint/ any varnish paint shellac or other coating that contains that equal to or access to 1.0 milligrams centimeters squared 
 
 
 
• lead based paint hazard -a condition in which e...
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Add to cartRisk Assessment/ On site investigation of a residential dwelling for lead-based paint hazards 
 
 
 
• Lead based paint/ any varnish paint shellac or other coating that contains that equal to or access to 1.0 milligrams centimeters squared 
 
 
 
• lead based paint hazard -a condition in which e...
Permanent abatement options include... 
Paint removal, component removal, enclosure, encapsulation 
 
 
 
What agencies focus on childhood lead poisoning prevention? 
CDPH, HUD, EPA 
 
 
 
What is the CAL OSHA Standard for lead? 
Title 8 CCR 1532.1 
 
 
 
What is the Guidelines for the Evaluation an...
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Add to cartPermanent abatement options include... 
Paint removal, component removal, enclosure, encapsulation 
 
 
 
What agencies focus on childhood lead poisoning prevention? 
CDPH, HUD, EPA 
 
 
 
What is the CAL OSHA Standard for lead? 
Title 8 CCR 1532.1 
 
 
 
What is the Guidelines for the Evaluation an...
Lead was used in paint because it 
Adds durability and serves as a drying agent. 
 
 
 
Lead is sometimes found in drinking water because lead is in 
Pipe solder and plumbing fixtures. 
 
 
 
What form of lead is often found in house paint? 
WHITE LEAD 
 
 
 
How much lead must be present in a paint...
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Add to cartLead was used in paint because it 
Adds durability and serves as a drying agent. 
 
 
 
Lead is sometimes found in drinking water because lead is in 
Pipe solder and plumbing fixtures. 
 
 
 
What form of lead is often found in house paint? 
WHITE LEAD 
 
 
 
How much lead must be present in a paint...
Water Lead Action Level 
5 ppb 
 
 
 
Soil High Contact Area Action Level 
400 ppm 
 
 
 
Soil General Action Level 
1200 ppm 
 
 
 
Soil Abatement Level 
5000 ppm 
 
 
 
Soil IDPH Regulatory Level 
1000 ppm 
 
 
 
Paint Chip - HUD hazard level 
5000 ppm or 0.5% Lead by weight 
 
 
 
Consumer Produc...
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Add to cartWater Lead Action Level 
5 ppb 
 
 
 
Soil High Contact Area Action Level 
400 ppm 
 
 
 
Soil General Action Level 
1200 ppm 
 
 
 
Soil Abatement Level 
5000 ppm 
 
 
 
Soil IDPH Regulatory Level 
1000 ppm 
 
 
 
Paint Chip - HUD hazard level 
5000 ppm or 0.5% Lead by weight 
 
 
 
Consumer Produc...
1978 
The year lead paint was banned in all residential paint in the U.S. 
 
 
 
Dust 
The primary form of LBL through which lead poisoning occurs in children in residential homes. 
 
 
 
Blood Lead Level Test 
The best way to determine whether a person/child has lead poisoning. 
 
 
 
.5% by weight...
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Add to cart1978 
The year lead paint was banned in all residential paint in the U.S. 
 
 
 
Dust 
The primary form of LBL through which lead poisoning occurs in children in residential homes. 
 
 
 
Blood Lead Level Test 
The best way to determine whether a person/child has lead poisoning. 
 
 
 
.5% by weight...
Lead Was used in paint because it: 
Ads Durability and serves as a drying agent 
 
 
 
Lead is sometimes found in drinking water because lead is in: 
Pipe solder and Plumbing fixtures. 
 
 
 
What form of lead is often found in house paint? 
White Lead 
 
 
 
How much lead must be present in a paint...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartLead Was used in paint because it: 
Ads Durability and serves as a drying agent 
 
 
 
Lead is sometimes found in drinking water because lead is in: 
Pipe solder and Plumbing fixtures. 
 
 
 
What form of lead is often found in house paint? 
White Lead 
 
 
 
How much lead must be present in a paint...
Lead paint was banned in all residential paint in the U.S. beginning in ___________ 
1978 
 
 
 
The primary form of LBL through which lead poisoning occurs in children in residential homes is _________ 
Dust 
 
 
 
The best way to determine whether a person/child had lead poisoning is by obtaining ...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartLead paint was banned in all residential paint in the U.S. beginning in ___________ 
1978 
 
 
 
The primary form of LBL through which lead poisoning occurs in children in residential homes is _________ 
Dust 
 
 
 
The best way to determine whether a person/child had lead poisoning is by obtaining ...
which federal agencies are actively involved in developing lead regulations and policies? 
EPA, OSHA, HUD 
 
 
 
what role does OSHA play in the prevention of lead poisoning? 
inspects job sites for worker safety and sets standards for worker protection 
 
 
 
Three are REQUIRED by OSHA for exposure...
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Add to cartwhich federal agencies are actively involved in developing lead regulations and policies? 
EPA, OSHA, HUD 
 
 
 
what role does OSHA play in the prevention of lead poisoning? 
inspects job sites for worker safety and sets standards for worker protection 
 
 
 
Three are REQUIRED by OSHA for exposure...
RISK ASSESSMENT EXAM 3 TOXICITY ASSESSMENT| 36 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
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Add to cartRISK ASSESSMENT EXAM 3 TOXICITY ASSESSMENT| 36 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
Lead Was used in paint because it: 
Ads Durability and serves as a drying agent 
 
 
 
Lead is sometimes found in drinking water because lead is in: 
Pipe solder and Plumbing fixtures. 
 
 
 
What form of lead is often found in house paint? 
White Lead 
 
 
 
How much lead must be present in a paint...
Preview 0 out of 0 pages
Add to cartLead Was used in paint because it: 
Ads Durability and serves as a drying agent 
 
 
 
Lead is sometimes found in drinking water because lead is in: 
Pipe solder and Plumbing fixtures. 
 
 
 
What form of lead is often found in house paint? 
White Lead 
 
 
 
How much lead must be present in a paint...
which federal agencies are actively involved in developing lead regulations and policies? 
EPA, OSHA, HUD 
 
 
 
what role does OSHA play in the prevention of lead poisoning? 
inspects job sites for worker safety and sets standards for worker protection 
 
 
 
Three are REQUIRED by OSHA for exposure...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartwhich federal agencies are actively involved in developing lead regulations and policies? 
EPA, OSHA, HUD 
 
 
 
what role does OSHA play in the prevention of lead poisoning? 
inspects job sites for worker safety and sets standards for worker protection 
 
 
 
Three are REQUIRED by OSHA for exposure...
Identify the materials used for enclosure 
Drywall 
vinyl siding 
Plywood 
Paneling 
Caulk and sealant 
 
 
 
Hazards that exist in residential environments 
Lead dust 
Lead contaminated soil 
Peeling, chipping paint 
Folk remedies 
 
 
 
Describe how children are typically exposed to lead 
Hand to ...
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Add to cartIdentify the materials used for enclosure 
Drywall 
vinyl siding 
Plywood 
Paneling 
Caulk and sealant 
 
 
 
Hazards that exist in residential environments 
Lead dust 
Lead contaminated soil 
Peeling, chipping paint 
Folk remedies 
 
 
 
Describe how children are typically exposed to lead 
Hand to ...
What are exemptions to Target Housing ? 
Zero bedroom dwelling units, housing exclusively for the elderly or disabled, housing certified as lead free by an accredited lead inspector, emergencies. 
 
 
 
How long should water not be used prior to sampling for lead ? 
6 hours 
 
 
 
What is the lead h...
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Add to cartWhat are exemptions to Target Housing ? 
Zero bedroom dwelling units, housing exclusively for the elderly or disabled, housing certified as lead free by an accredited lead inspector, emergencies. 
 
 
 
How long should water not be used prior to sampling for lead ? 
6 hours 
 
 
 
What is the lead h...
you find an unresponsive patient who is not breathing. after activating the emergency response system, you determine that there is no pulse. what is your next action? 
start chest compressions at a rate of at least 100/min. 
 
 
 
you are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. the blood press...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartyou find an unresponsive patient who is not breathing. after activating the emergency response system, you determine that there is no pulse. what is your next action? 
start chest compressions at a rate of at least 100/min. 
 
 
 
you are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. the blood press...
The BLS Survey includes assessing which of the following? 
 
Responsiveness, Activate EMS and get AED, Circulation, Defibrillation 
 
 
 
Basic airway skills include all of the following EXCEPT: 
 
Placement of laryngeal mask airway (LMA) 
 
 
 
Which type of suction catheter provides the most effec...
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Add to cartThe BLS Survey includes assessing which of the following? 
 
Responsiveness, Activate EMS and get AED, Circulation, Defibrillation 
 
 
 
Basic airway skills include all of the following EXCEPT: 
 
Placement of laryngeal mask airway (LMA) 
 
 
 
Which type of suction catheter provides the most effec...
BEST PLAYLIST I'VE FOUND FOR ALL HEART.ORG ACLS CODES! 

 
This is a good starting point for Jose (big Megacode at end): 
 
 
 
In which situation does bradycardia require treatment? 
Hypotension 
 
 
 
Which intervention is most appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole? 
Epinephrine ...
Preview 4 out of 43 pages
Add to cartBEST PLAYLIST I'VE FOUND FOR ALL HEART.ORG ACLS CODES! 

 
This is a good starting point for Jose (big Megacode at end): 
 
 
 
In which situation does bradycardia require treatment? 
Hypotension 
 
 
 
Which intervention is most appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole? 
Epinephrine ...
what should be done to minimize interruptions in chest compressions during CPR? 
continue CPR while the defibrillator is charging 
 
 
 
what condition is an indication to stop of withhold resuscitative efforts? 
safety to threat providers? 
 
 
 
After verifying the absence of a pulse, you initiate...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartwhat should be done to minimize interruptions in chest compressions during CPR? 
continue CPR while the defibrillator is charging 
 
 
 
what condition is an indication to stop of withhold resuscitative efforts? 
safety to threat providers? 
 
 
 
After verifying the absence of a pulse, you initiate...
You find an unresponsive pt. who is not breathing. After activating the emergency response system, you determine there is no pulse. What is your next action? 
Start chest compressions of at least 100 per min. 
 
 
 
You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. The blood pressure is 92/50 mm...
Preview 3 out of 16 pages
Add to cartYou find an unresponsive pt. who is not breathing. After activating the emergency response system, you determine there is no pulse. What is your next action? 
Start chest compressions of at least 100 per min. 
 
 
 
You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. The blood pressure is 92/50 mm...
given rapidly during compressions 
IV/IO drug administration during CPR should be 
 
 
 
Potential oxygen toxicity 
What is the danger of routinely administering high concentrations of oxygen during post-cardiac arrest period for patients who achieve ROSC? 
 
 
 
NOT recommended for routine use 
Rec...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartgiven rapidly during compressions 
IV/IO drug administration during CPR should be 
 
 
 
Potential oxygen toxicity 
What is the danger of routinely administering high concentrations of oxygen during post-cardiac arrest period for patients who achieve ROSC? 
 
 
 
NOT recommended for routine use 
Rec...
Who Makes Up the Guidelines? 
American Heart Association 
Two subcommittees 
ACLS Subcommittees 
EKG Subcommittees 
In JAMA every 2 years 
 
 
 
Whats the most common cause of death in adults? 
Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) Narrowing of small blood vessels which supplies blood and oxygen to the hear...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartWho Makes Up the Guidelines? 
American Heart Association 
Two subcommittees 
ACLS Subcommittees 
EKG Subcommittees 
In JAMA every 2 years 
 
 
 
Whats the most common cause of death in adults? 
Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) Narrowing of small blood vessels which supplies blood and oxygen to the hear...
ACLS CLASS| 42 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.
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Add to cartACLS CLASS| 42 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.
2nd degree AV block: Mobitz II 
 
 
2nd degree AV block: Mobitz II 
 
 
2nd degree AV block: Wenebach 
 
 
2nd degree AV block: Wenebach 
 
 
3rd degree AV block 
 
 
Atrial fibrillation 
 
 
Atrial flutter 
 
 
Asystole 
 
 
Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia 
 
 
Normal sinus 
 
 
Pulseless elect...
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Add to cart2nd degree AV block: Mobitz II 
 
 
2nd degree AV block: Mobitz II 
 
 
2nd degree AV block: Wenebach 
 
 
2nd degree AV block: Wenebach 
 
 
3rd degree AV block 
 
 
Atrial fibrillation 
 
 
Atrial flutter 
 
 
Asystole 
 
 
Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia 
 
 
Normal sinus 
 
 
Pulseless elect...
What should be done to minimize interruptions in chest compressions during CPR? 
Continue CPR while the defibrillator is charging. 
 
 
 
which condition is an indication to stop or withhold resuscitative efforts? 
Safety threat to providers. 
 
 
 
After verifying the absence of a pulse, you initia...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartWhat should be done to minimize interruptions in chest compressions during CPR? 
Continue CPR while the defibrillator is charging. 
 
 
 
which condition is an indication to stop or withhold resuscitative efforts? 
Safety threat to providers. 
 
 
 
After verifying the absence of a pulse, you initia...
you find an unresponsive patient who is not breathing. after activating the emergency response system, you determine that there is no pulse. what is your next action? 
start chest compressions at a rate of at least 100/min. 
 
 
 
you are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. the blood press...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartyou find an unresponsive patient who is not breathing. after activating the emergency response system, you determine that there is no pulse. what is your next action? 
start chest compressions at a rate of at least 100/min. 
 
 
 
you are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. the blood press...
1x sold
You find an unresponsive pt. who is not breathing. After activating the emergency response system, you determine there is no pulse. What is your next action? 
Start chest compressions of at least 100 per min. 
 
 
 
You are evaluating a 58 year old man with chest pain. The BP is 92/50 and a heart ra...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartYou find an unresponsive pt. who is not breathing. After activating the emergency response system, you determine there is no pulse. What is your next action? 
Start chest compressions of at least 100 per min. 
 
 
 
You are evaluating a 58 year old man with chest pain. The BP is 92/50 and a heart ra...
During post-cardiac arrest care, which is the recommended duration of targeted temperature management after reaching the correct temperature range? 
At least 24 hours 
 
 
 
You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT scan was normal, with no signs...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartDuring post-cardiac arrest care, which is the recommended duration of targeted temperature management after reaching the correct temperature range? 
At least 24 hours 
 
 
 
You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT scan was normal, with no signs...
ACLS CERTIFICATION EXAM QUIZ 2020 |53 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
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Add to cartACLS CERTIFICATION EXAM QUIZ 2020 |53 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
BEST PLAYLIST I'VE FOUND FOR ALL HEART.ORG ACLS CODES! 

 
This is a good starting point for Jose (big Megacode at end): 
 
 
 
In which situation does bradycardia require treatment? 
Hypotension 
 
 
 
Which intervention is most appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole? 
Epinephrine ...
Preview 4 out of 43 pages
Add to cartBEST PLAYLIST I'VE FOUND FOR ALL HEART.ORG ACLS CODES! 

 
This is a good starting point for Jose (big Megacode at end): 
 
 
 
In which situation does bradycardia require treatment? 
Hypotension 
 
 
 
Which intervention is most appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole? 
Epinephrine ...
A patient experiences cardiac arrest, and the resuscitation team initiates ventilations using a bag-valve-mask (BVM) resuscitator. The development of which condition during the provision of care would lead the team to suspect that improper BVM technique is being used? 
Select the correct answer to t...
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Add to cartA patient experiences cardiac arrest, and the resuscitation team initiates ventilations using a bag-valve-mask (BVM) resuscitator. The development of which condition during the provision of care would lead the team to suspect that improper BVM technique is being used? 
Select the correct answer to t...
You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT was normal with no sign of hemorrhage. The patient does not have any contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which treatment is best? 
a. start fibrinolytic therapy ASAP 
b. hold fibrinolytic therapy f...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartYou are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT was normal with no sign of hemorrhage. The patient does not have any contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which treatment is best? 
a. start fibrinolytic therapy ASAP 
b. hold fibrinolytic therapy f...
A 48-year-old man became unresponsive shortly after presenting to you with nausea and generalized chest discomfort. You observe gasping breathing and are unsure if you feel a pulse. You should know: 
A. Call for help and begin chest compressions. 
B. Wait until breathing stops and then check again f...
Preview 3 out of 16 pages
Add to cartA 48-year-old man became unresponsive shortly after presenting to you with nausea and generalized chest discomfort. You observe gasping breathing and are unsure if you feel a pulse. You should know: 
A. Call for help and begin chest compressions. 
B. Wait until breathing stops and then check again f...
Sudden cardiac arrest in an adult is MOST LIKELY caused by 
Ventricular fibrillation 
 
 
 
The "chain of survival" is used: 
To describe the most effective approach for treating sudden cardiac arrest 
 
 
 
The links in the "chain of survival" in children is slightly different than for adults a...
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Add to cartSudden cardiac arrest in an adult is MOST LIKELY caused by 
Ventricular fibrillation 
 
 
 
The "chain of survival" is used: 
To describe the most effective approach for treating sudden cardiac arrest 
 
 
 
The links in the "chain of survival" in children is slightly different than for adults a...
Start CPR, beginning with? 
 
Compression rate? 
 
Where is hand placement? 
 
Compression depth? 
Chest compression. 
 
100-120 compressions/minute. 
 
Mid-nipple line and lower half of breastbone. 
 
2 inches to 2.4 inches depth 
 
 
 
What to do before approaching a patient? 
 
Start CPR after co...
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Add to cartStart CPR, beginning with? 
 
Compression rate? 
 
Where is hand placement? 
 
Compression depth? 
Chest compression. 
 
100-120 compressions/minute. 
 
Mid-nipple line and lower half of breastbone. 
 
2 inches to 2.4 inches depth 
 
 
 
What to do before approaching a patient? 
 
Start CPR after co...
A 12-year-old child being evaluated in the pediatric intensive care unit displays the following ECG waveform. The team interprets this as which arrhythmia? 
 
second degree 
 
 
 
Laboratory tests are ordered for a child who has been vomiting for 3 days and is diaphoretic, tachypneic, lethargic and ...
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Add to cartA 12-year-old child being evaluated in the pediatric intensive care unit displays the following ECG waveform. The team interprets this as which arrhythmia? 
 
second degree 
 
 
 
Laboratory tests are ordered for a child who has been vomiting for 3 days and is diaphoretic, tachypneic, lethargic and ...
When performing CPR on an unresponsive choking victim what modification should you incorporate? 
Each time you open the airway look for the obstructing object 
 
 
 
Members of the team know their boundaries and ask for help before the resuscitation attempt worsens. Match this statement with the mos...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartWhen performing CPR on an unresponsive choking victim what modification should you incorporate? 
Each time you open the airway look for the obstructing object 
 
 
 
Members of the team know their boundaries and ask for help before the resuscitation attempt worsens. Match this statement with the mos...
Ventricular Tachycardia 
A patient is being treated in the emergency department and is determined to have NSTE-ACS. Invasive management is planned based on which finding? 
 
- Ventricular Tachycardia 
 
- Atrial Fibrillation 
 
- Ventricular Fibrillation 
 
- Atrial Tachycardia 
 
 
 
 
On the lowe...
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Add to cartVentricular Tachycardia 
A patient is being treated in the emergency department and is determined to have NSTE-ACS. Invasive management is planned based on which finding? 
 
- Ventricular Tachycardia 
 
- Atrial Fibrillation 
 
- Ventricular Fibrillation 
 
- Atrial Tachycardia 
 
 
 
 
On the lowe...
Within the first 10 minutes, on the basis of the patient showing symptoms suggestive of myocardial ischemia, what will your first actions include (if not completed by EMS before arrival)? 
o Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) 
o Administer a blood thinner 
o Administer aspirin and establish IV...
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Add to cartWithin the first 10 minutes, on the basis of the patient showing symptoms suggestive of myocardial ischemia, what will your first actions include (if not completed by EMS before arrival)? 
o Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) 
o Administer a blood thinner 
o Administer aspirin and establish IV...
You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT was normal with no sign of hemorrhage. The patient does not have any contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which treatment is best? 
a. start fibrinolytic therapy ASAP 
b. hold fibrinolytic therapy f...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartYou are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT was normal with no sign of hemorrhage. The patient does not have any contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which treatment is best? 
a. start fibrinolytic therapy ASAP 
b. hold fibrinolytic therapy f...
ALS - early drugs - Adrenaline - dose and dilution? 
1mg 
 
10ml of 1:10,000 
1ml of 1 in 1,000 
 
 
 
ALS - early drugs - drug A for thrombolysis for suspected or proven cardiac arrest due to PE 
Tenecteplase 500 - 600 mcg/kg IV by bolus 
 
TeN CuT PLeaSe 
 
 
 
ALS - early drugs - adrenaline in sh...
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Add to cartALS - early drugs - Adrenaline - dose and dilution? 
1mg 
 
10ml of 1:10,000 
1ml of 1 in 1,000 
 
 
 
ALS - early drugs - drug A for thrombolysis for suspected or proven cardiac arrest due to PE 
Tenecteplase 500 - 600 mcg/kg IV by bolus 
 
TeN CuT PLeaSe 
 
 
 
ALS - early drugs - adrenaline in sh...
1x sold
A concept that helps to promote effective and efficient teamwork and reduce the likelihood of errors is called _____. 
Crew resource management 
 
 
 
Which tasks are responsibilities of the team leader? 
Sets clear expectations 
 
Assigns Roles 
 
Facilitates a debriefing session 
 
 
 
When should...
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Add to cartA concept that helps to promote effective and efficient teamwork and reduce the likelihood of errors is called _____. 
Crew resource management 
 
 
 
Which tasks are responsibilities of the team leader? 
Sets clear expectations 
 
Assigns Roles 
 
Facilitates a debriefing session 
 
 
 
When should...
As the only lifeguard performing CPR on a & year old child, you would perform cycles of: 
30 chest compressions and 2 ventilations 
 
 
 
Which of the following would you identify as the universal sign that a conscious person is choking? 
Clutching the throat 
 
 
 
The patron asks, "Should we move...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartAs the only lifeguard performing CPR on a & year old child, you would perform cycles of: 
30 chest compressions and 2 ventilations 
 
 
 
Which of the following would you identify as the universal sign that a conscious person is choking? 
Clutching the throat 
 
 
 
The patron asks, "Should we move...
PPE 
Personal Protective Equipment 
 
 
 
FAST 
Face, Arm, Speech, Time 
 
 
 
EAP 
Emergency Action Plan 
 
 
 
AED 
Automated External Defibrillator 
 
 
 
SAMPLE 
1. Signs/Symptoms 
2. Allergies 
3. Medications 
4. Past History 
5. Last Oral Intake 
6. Events leading to injury/illness 
 
 
 
FIND...
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Add to cartPPE 
Personal Protective Equipment 
 
 
 
FAST 
Face, Arm, Speech, Time 
 
 
 
EAP 
Emergency Action Plan 
 
 
 
AED 
Automated External Defibrillator 
 
 
 
SAMPLE 
1. Signs/Symptoms 
2. Allergies 
3. Medications 
4. Past History 
5. Last Oral Intake 
6. Events leading to injury/illness 
 
 
 
FIND...
A patient's ECG reveals a narrow QRS complex with a regular rhythm, indicating a narrow-complex supraventricular tachyarrhythmia. The patient is hemodynamically stable. Which intervention would be initiated first? 
Vagal maneuvers 
 
For a patient who is hemodynamically stable and experiencing a na...
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Add to cartA patient's ECG reveals a narrow QRS complex with a regular rhythm, indicating a narrow-complex supraventricular tachyarrhythmia. The patient is hemodynamically stable. Which intervention would be initiated first? 
Vagal maneuvers 
 
For a patient who is hemodynamically stable and experiencing a na...
While assessing an unresponsive adult who has been pulled from the water, you find that the patient has only occasional gasps, no definitive pulse and no severe life-threatening bleeding. Which of the following should you do next? 
Provide 2 ventilations and begin CPR 
 
 
 
An adult choking victim ...
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Add to cartWhile assessing an unresponsive adult who has been pulled from the water, you find that the patient has only occasional gasps, no definitive pulse and no severe life-threatening bleeding. Which of the following should you do next? 
Provide 2 ventilations and begin CPR 
 
 
 
An adult choking victim ...
A patient presents to the emergency department with signs and symptoms suggestive of ACS. The 12-lead ECG shows T-wave inversion of less than 2 mm. To which clinical category would you assign this patient? 
 
 
 
Which conditions contribute to the pathophysiology of ACS? 
1. Development of an occlus...
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Add to cartA patient presents to the emergency department with signs and symptoms suggestive of ACS. The 12-lead ECG shows T-wave inversion of less than 2 mm. To which clinical category would you assign this patient? 
 
 
 
Which conditions contribute to the pathophysiology of ACS? 
1. Development of an occlus...
You use critical thinking when you: 
Perform a rapid assessment and determine a course of action. 
 
Anticipate roles and functions as part of a team based on the patient's presentation and condition. 
 
Re-evaluate the situation for changes, interpret these changes and modify care accordingly. 
 
...
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Add to cartYou use critical thinking when you: 
Perform a rapid assessment and determine a course of action. 
 
Anticipate roles and functions as part of a team based on the patient's presentation and condition. 
 
Re-evaluate the situation for changes, interpret these changes and modify care accordingly. 
 
...
A 12-year-old is being treated in the urgent care clinic. The mother reports that the child came home from school yesterday with a high fever, vomiting and multiple episodes of watery diarrhea. The healthcare provider obtains a rhythm strip and notes the following waveform. The provider interprets t...
Preview 0 out of 0 pages
Add to cartA 12-year-old is being treated in the urgent care clinic. The mother reports that the child came home from school yesterday with a high fever, vomiting and multiple episodes of watery diarrhea. The healthcare provider obtains a rhythm strip and notes the following waveform. The provider interprets t...
A 4-month old infant is brought to the emergency department in cardiac arrest. Which condition would the team identify as the most common cause of cardiac arrest in an infant of this age? 
sudden infant death syndrome is the most common cause in infants younger than 6 months of age. 
 
 
 
The PALS ...
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Add to cartA 4-month old infant is brought to the emergency department in cardiac arrest. Which condition would the team identify as the most common cause of cardiac arrest in an infant of this age? 
sudden infant death syndrome is the most common cause in infants younger than 6 months of age. 
 
 
 
The PALS ...
when to perform Basic Life Support for Adults? 
When the heart and normal breathing have stopped 
 
 
 
what actions are required after confirming the patient needs BLS? 
Basic life support (BLS) for a patient in cardiac arrest includes high-quality CPR and the use of an AED. BLS also includes the d...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartwhen to perform Basic Life Support for Adults? 
When the heart and normal breathing have stopped 
 
 
 
what actions are required after confirming the patient needs BLS? 
Basic life support (BLS) for a patient in cardiac arrest includes high-quality CPR and the use of an AED. BLS also includes the d...
CPR/AED protocol infant 
someone under the age of 1 
 
 
 
CPR/AED protocol child 
age of 1 to the onset of puberty as evidenced by breast development in girls and underarm hair development in boys (usually around the age of 12). BUT be careful because the AED pad varies by age and weight. 
 
 
 
CP...
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Add to cartCPR/AED protocol infant 
someone under the age of 1 
 
 
 
CPR/AED protocol child 
age of 1 to the onset of puberty as evidenced by breast development in girls and underarm hair development in boys (usually around the age of 12). BUT be careful because the AED pad varies by age and weight. 
 
 
 
CP...
1 rescuer compression to breath ratio in pediatrics? 
30:2 
 
 
 
2 rescuer compression to breath ratio in pediatrics? 
15:2 
 
 
 
You need to provide rescue breaths to a child victim with a pulse. What is the appropriate rate for delivering breaths? 
A.) 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds 
B.) 2 breath...
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Add to cart1 rescuer compression to breath ratio in pediatrics? 
30:2 
 
 
 
2 rescuer compression to breath ratio in pediatrics? 
15:2 
 
 
 
You need to provide rescue breaths to a child victim with a pulse. What is the appropriate rate for delivering breaths? 
A.) 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds 
B.) 2 breath...
critical thinking 
thinking clearly & rationally to identify the connection between information & actions 
 
 
 
problem solving 
the ability to use readily available resources to find solutions to challenging situations or issues that arise 
 
 
 
communication 
includes verbal messages & nonverbal...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartcritical thinking 
thinking clearly & rationally to identify the connection between information & actions 
 
 
 
problem solving 
the ability to use readily available resources to find solutions to challenging situations or issues that arise 
 
 
 
communication 
includes verbal messages & nonverbal...
When editing a category list in Chronicles such as the Allergy Reaction category list, you may see the following message: "Release Range: All Customer Owned". 
 
Part I: What does this message indicate? Choose only ONE answer. 
A. This category list is a System list maintained by Epic and customer...
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Add to cartWhen editing a category list in Chronicles such as the Allergy Reaction category list, you may see the following message: "Release Range: All Customer Owned". 
 
Part I: What does this message indicate? Choose only ONE answer. 
A. This category list is a System list maintained by Epic and customer...
What record controls details within activities like the tabs in Chart Review, or the default report in Snapshot? 
Profiles 
 
 
 
If you wanted to know the record name of the Snapshot report, how could you find that out? 
Go to Session Information Report and click the link to Enable Report and Print...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartWhat record controls details within activities like the tabs in Chart Review, or the default report in Snapshot? 
Profiles 
 
 
 
If you wanted to know the record name of the Snapshot report, how could you find that out? 
Go to Session Information Report and click the link to Enable Report and Print...
Chronicles-like a filing cabinet 
Epic's database management system. 
 
 
 
Master files, INI 
Master files are like drawers 
Chronicles is divided into __________ like patient and diagnosis. Each has a three letter identifier called _________. 
 
 
 
900 
There are over ________ master files in Ep...
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Add to cartChronicles-like a filing cabinet 
Epic's database management system. 
 
 
 
Master files, INI 
Master files are like drawers 
Chronicles is divided into __________ like patient and diagnosis. Each has a three letter identifier called _________. 
 
 
 
900 
There are over ________ master files in Ep...
Which of the following is a no-add item? 
A.) Chief Complaint 
B.) Appointment time 
C.) Birth date 
D.) Marital Status 
C-Birth date 
 
 
 
Record 
 
Master file 
 
item 
Is a Folder 
 
Drawer 
 
Question 
 
 
 
What is Epic's database management system called 
Chronicles 
 
 
 
True or False: You...
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Add to cartWhich of the following is a no-add item? 
A.) Chief Complaint 
B.) Appointment time 
C.) Birth date 
D.) Marital Status 
C-Birth date 
 
 
 
Record 
 
Master file 
 
item 
Is a Folder 
 
Drawer 
 
Question 
 
 
 
What is Epic's database management system called 
Chronicles 
 
 
 
True or False: You...
EPIC CLN251 525 – 2023 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.
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Add to cartEPIC CLN251 525 – 2023 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.
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Add to cartCLN 251 252 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.
Name two things that are defined by your role record. 
Roles define your default Startup Activity, the Hyperspace toolbar, options under the Epic button, the maximum number of workspaces a user can have open, automatic timeout settings, and whether your user's last login department will default the...
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Add to cartName two things that are defined by your role record. 
Roles define your default Startup Activity, the Hyperspace toolbar, options under the Epic button, the maximum number of workspaces a user can have open, automatic timeout settings, and whether your user's last login department will default the...
Masterfiles that are constantly modified are... 
"Dynamic" 
 
 
 
Masterfiles only updated by Administrators are... 
"Administrative" or "static" 
 
 
 
Examples of where reports are... 
Chart Review, SnapShot, Summary, to format InBasket messages, labels and prescriptions, for read-only secti...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartMasterfiles that are constantly modified are... 
"Dynamic" 
 
 
 
Masterfiles only updated by Administrators are... 
"Administrative" or "static" 
 
 
 
Examples of where reports are... 
Chart Review, SnapShot, Summary, to format InBasket messages, labels and prescriptions, for read-only secti...
1x sold
to add a new insurance to the system that dose not exist 
select a generic coverage and enter information from the card 
 
 
 
when creating a new coverage record in the system you must choose the correct ( 2 answers) 
payer and plan 
 
 
 
true or false a patient can have more then one guarantor ac...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartto add a new insurance to the system that dose not exist 
select a generic coverage and enter information from the card 
 
 
 
when creating a new coverage record in the system you must choose the correct ( 2 answers) 
payer and plan 
 
 
 
true or false a patient can have more then one guarantor ac...
USER 
What record must be created in order for a person to log in to Epic? 
 
 
 
PROVIDER 
What record must be created for a person or resource that meets certain 
clinical criteria? 
 
 
 
SCHEDULABLE,CREDENTIALED, AUTHORIZES ORDERS 
REFERS TO/FROM 
What clinical criteria might be met for a user w...
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Add to cartUSER 
What record must be created in order for a person to log in to Epic? 
 
 
 
PROVIDER 
What record must be created for a person or resource that meets certain 
clinical criteria? 
 
 
 
SCHEDULABLE,CREDENTIALED, AUTHORIZES ORDERS 
REFERS TO/FROM 
What clinical criteria might be met for a user w...
When editing a category list in Chronicles such as the Allergy Reaction category list, you may see the following message: "Release Range: All Customer Owned". 
 
Part I: What does this message indicate? Choose only ONE answer. 
A. This category list is a System list maintained by Epic and customer...
Preview 2 out of 14 pages
Add to cartWhen editing a category list in Chronicles such as the Allergy Reaction category list, you may see the following message: "Release Range: All Customer Owned". 
 
Part I: What does this message indicate? Choose only ONE answer. 
A. This category list is a System list maintained by Epic and customer...
What record controls details within activities like the tabs in Chart Review, or the default report in Snapshot? 
Profiles 
 
 
 
If you wanted to know the record name of the Snapshot report, how could you find that out? 
Go to Session Information Report and click the link to Enable Report and Print...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartWhat record controls details within activities like the tabs in Chart Review, or the default report in Snapshot? 
Profiles 
 
 
 
If you wanted to know the record name of the Snapshot report, how could you find that out? 
Go to Session Information Report and click the link to Enable Report and Print...
CLN251 252 CONFIGURING THE EPIC END USER KEY TERMS AND DEFINITIONS
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CLN 251 252 CONFIGURING THE EPIC END USER-CLINICAL SHARED (COMMAND PAGE)
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Add to cartCLN 251 252 CONFIGURING THE EPIC END USER-CLINICAL SHARED (COMMAND PAGE)
Workflow Engine 
-impacts the configuration of the clinical workspace a user sees in Hyperspace 
-Linked to most specific profile to be considered by system 
-composed of conditions and directives (If, then statements) 
 
 
 
Directive 
"Then" Statement 
-tells the WE what to do if the rule matche...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartWorkflow Engine 
-impacts the configuration of the clinical workspace a user sees in Hyperspace 
-Linked to most specific profile to be considered by system 
-composed of conditions and directives (If, then statements) 
 
 
 
Directive 
"Then" Statement 
-tells the WE what to do if the rule matche...
When editing a category list in Chronicles such as the Allergy Reaction category list, you may see the following message: "Release Range: All Customer Owned". 
 
Part I: What does this message indicate? Choose only ONE answer. 
A. This category list is a System list maintained by Epic and customer...
Preview 2 out of 14 pages
Add to cartWhen editing a category list in Chronicles such as the Allergy Reaction category list, you may see the following message: "Release Range: All Customer Owned". 
 
Part I: What does this message indicate? Choose only ONE answer. 
A. This category list is a System list maintained by Epic and customer...
A Workflow Engine Rule is a _______ in the ________ masterfile 
Record; LOR 
 
 
 
What four things does the WE control in a patient workspace? 
1) Activity Tabs 
2) More menu (formerly More Activities) 
3) Navigators 
4) Sidebars (when using widescreen) 
 
 
 
_______ can be configured be a real re...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartA Workflow Engine Rule is a _______ in the ________ masterfile 
Record; LOR 
 
 
 
What four things does the WE control in a patient workspace? 
1) Activity Tabs 
2) More menu (formerly More Activities) 
3) Navigators 
4) Sidebars (when using widescreen) 
 
 
 
_______ can be configured be a real re...
Your providers would like the question "Is the patient pregnant?" to appear when ordering an X-ray for female patients aged 12 or older. After the order-specific question has been created, how will you accomplish this request? (Choose only one answer.) 
A. Link the question to the X-Ray Default Se...
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Add to cartYour providers would like the question "Is the patient pregnant?" to appear when ordering an X-ray for female patients aged 12 or older. After the order-specific question has been created, how will you accomplish this request? (Choose only one answer.) 
A. Link the question to the X-Ray Default Se...
LPR in the INI for... 
Profile master file 
 
 
 
LPR linked to System Definitions 
Will affect any given user 
 
 
 
How many Profiles can work together to customize a user's experience? 
Up to 6 
 
 
 
What master file is only used by Clinical applications? 
LPR - Profiles 
 
 
 
What are some ex...
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Add to cartLPR in the INI for... 
Profile master file 
 
 
 
LPR linked to System Definitions 
Will affect any given user 
 
 
 
How many Profiles can work together to customize a user's experience? 
Up to 6 
 
 
 
What master file is only used by Clinical applications? 
LPR - Profiles 
 
 
 
What are some ex...
True or False: Security classes can be shared 
True 
 
 
 
Assigning Security Class in____________ is an efficient way to grant access for ________ 
the template; a group of users 
 
 
 
INI for Security Class is... 
ECL 
 
 
 
ECL gives users access to ____________ 
Different Activities 
 
 
 
The ...
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Add to cartTrue or False: Security classes can be shared 
True 
 
 
 
Assigning Security Class in____________ is an efficient way to grant access for ________ 
the template; a group of users 
 
 
 
INI for Security Class is... 
ECL 
 
 
 
ECL gives users access to ____________ 
Different Activities 
 
 
 
The ...
CHRONICLES (EPIC CLN 251 252) WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+
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Add to cartCHRONICLES (EPIC CLN 251 252) WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+
What is Crossfit? 
constantly varied, high-intensity, functional movement 
 
 
 
What is power? 
the time rate of doing work 
 
 
 
What is the most important characteristic of functional movement? 
Capacity to move large loads over long distance (high power producing) 
 
 
 
What are the characteri...
Preview 3 out of 21 pages
Add to cartWhat is Crossfit? 
constantly varied, high-intensity, functional movement 
 
 
 
What is power? 
the time rate of doing work 
 
 
 
What is the most important characteristic of functional movement? 
Capacity to move large loads over long distance (high power producing) 
 
 
 
What are the characteri...
What is crossfit 
Constantly varied functional movements executed at high intensity 
 
 
 
Constantly varied 
General physical preparedness (GPP) 
 
 
 
What is General Physical Preparedness 
Term used to describe the generalised base qualities of an athlete 
 
 
 
What's the aim of GPP 
To establi...
Preview 4 out of 131 pages
Add to cartWhat is crossfit 
Constantly varied functional movements executed at high intensity 
 
 
 
Constantly varied 
General physical preparedness (GPP) 
 
 
 
What is General Physical Preparedness 
Term used to describe the generalised base qualities of an athlete 
 
 
 
What's the aim of GPP 
To establi...
Definition of Crossfit 
constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement 
(also known as Crossfits prescription) 
 
 
 
What is functional movement 
load, distance, and speed for production of high power 
 
 
 
Define intensity 
power 
(intensity is the independent variable) 
 
 
 
Crossfit me...
Preview 3 out of 17 pages
Add to cartDefinition of Crossfit 
constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement 
(also known as Crossfits prescription) 
 
 
 
What is functional movement 
load, distance, and speed for production of high power 
 
 
 
Define intensity 
power 
(intensity is the independent variable) 
 
 
 
Crossfit me...
Definition of Crossfit 
constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement 
(also known as Crossfits prescription) 
 
 
 
What is functional movement 
load, distance, and speed for production of high power 
 
 
 
Define intensity 
power 
(intensity is the independent variable) 
 
 
 
Crossfit me...
Preview 3 out of 17 pages
Add to cartDefinition of Crossfit 
constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement 
(also known as Crossfits prescription) 
 
 
 
What is functional movement 
load, distance, and speed for production of high power 
 
 
 
Define intensity 
power 
(intensity is the independent variable) 
 
 
 
Crossfit me...
Definition of Crossfit 
constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement 
(also known as Crossfits prescription) 
 
 
 
What is functional movement 
load, distance, and speed for production of high power 
 
 
 
Define intensity 
power 
(intensity is the independent variable) 
 
 
 
Crossfit me...
Preview 3 out of 16 pages
Add to cartDefinition of Crossfit 
constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement 
(also known as Crossfits prescription) 
 
 
 
What is functional movement 
load, distance, and speed for production of high power 
 
 
 
Define intensity 
power 
(intensity is the independent variable) 
 
 
 
Crossfit me...
Aim of Crossfit 
broad, general and inclusive fitness 
 
 
 
Prescription 
constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement 
 
 
 
Functional movement 
load, distance and speed 
 
 
 
Diet 
lays the molecular foundations for fitness and health. 
 
 
 
Metabolic Conditioning 
builds capacity in...
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Add to cartAim of Crossfit 
broad, general and inclusive fitness 
 
 
 
Prescription 
constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement 
 
 
 
Functional movement 
load, distance and speed 
 
 
 
Diet 
lays the molecular foundations for fitness and health. 
 
 
 
Metabolic Conditioning 
builds capacity in...
Cardiovascular/respiratory endurance 
The ability of the body to gather, process & deliver oxygen 
 
 
 
Stamina 
The ability of the body to process, deliver, store, & utilize energy. 
 
 
 
Strength 
The ability of a muscular unit, or combination of muscular units to apply force. 
 
 
 
Flexibility...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartCardiovascular/respiratory endurance 
The ability of the body to gather, process & deliver oxygen 
 
 
 
Stamina 
The ability of the body to process, deliver, store, & utilize energy. 
 
 
 
Strength 
The ability of a muscular unit, or combination of muscular units to apply force. 
 
 
 
Flexibility...
What is Crossfit? 
constantly varied, high-intensity, functional movement 
 
 
 
What is power? 
the time rate of doing work 
 
 
 
What is the most important characteristic of functional movement? 
Capacity to move large loads over long distance (high power producing) 
 
 
 
What are the characteri...
Preview 3 out of 21 pages
Add to cartWhat is Crossfit? 
constantly varied, high-intensity, functional movement 
 
 
 
What is power? 
the time rate of doing work 
 
 
 
What is the most important characteristic of functional movement? 
Capacity to move large loads over long distance (high power producing) 
 
 
 
What are the characteri...
What is crossfit 
Constantly varied functional movements executed at high intensity 
 
 
 
Constantly varied 
General physical preparedness (GPP) 
 
 
 
What is General Physical Preparedness 
Term used to describe the generalised base qualities of an athlete 
 
 
 
What's the aim of GPP 
To establi...
Preview 4 out of 131 pages
Add to cartWhat is crossfit 
Constantly varied functional movements executed at high intensity 
 
 
 
Constantly varied 
General physical preparedness (GPP) 
 
 
 
What is General Physical Preparedness 
Term used to describe the generalised base qualities of an athlete 
 
 
 
What's the aim of GPP 
To establi...
Definition of Crossfit 
constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement 
(also known as Crossfits prescription) 
 
 
 
What is functional movement 
load, distance, and speed for production of high power 
 
 
 
Define intensity 
power 
(intensity is the independent variable) 
 
 
 
Crossfit me...
Preview 3 out of 17 pages
Add to cartDefinition of Crossfit 
constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement 
(also known as Crossfits prescription) 
 
 
 
What is functional movement 
load, distance, and speed for production of high power 
 
 
 
Define intensity 
power 
(intensity is the independent variable) 
 
 
 
Crossfit me...
CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 HANDBOOK |258 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.
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Gymnastics modality 
Body weight improve body control, neurological components: coordination,balance, agility, 
 
 
 
Weight lifting modality 
Olympic lifts, increase strength, power, hip/leg capacity 
 
 
 
Metabolic conditioning 
Row, bike, jump, bike 
 
 
 
Task priority days 
2 modality days, se...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartGymnastics modality 
Body weight improve body control, neurological components: coordination,balance, agility, 
 
 
 
Weight lifting modality 
Olympic lifts, increase strength, power, hip/leg capacity 
 
 
 
Metabolic conditioning 
Row, bike, jump, bike 
 
 
 
Task priority days 
2 modality days, se...
Define CrossFit 
constantly varied functional movement executed at high intensity. 
 
 
 
Characteristics of Functional Movements: 
1. Natural 
2. UMRP: Universal motor recruitment pattern. (found everywhere) 
3. Essential: for quality of life, living independently, to do everyday things. 
4. Safe 
...
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Add to cartDefine CrossFit 
constantly varied functional movement executed at high intensity. 
 
 
 
Characteristics of Functional Movements: 
1. Natural 
2. UMRP: Universal motor recruitment pattern. (found everywhere) 
3. Essential: for quality of life, living independently, to do everyday things. 
4. Safe 
...
CrossFit Definition 
Constantly varied functional movements executed at high intensity 
 
 
 
base of CrossFit program is 
functional movements on a regular basis 
 
 
 
CF defines its terms bc understanding them is the utilitiy for 
effective training 
 
 
 
giving clear definitions helps to 
dispe...
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Add to cartCrossFit Definition 
Constantly varied functional movements executed at high intensity 
 
 
 
base of CrossFit program is 
functional movements on a regular basis 
 
 
 
CF defines its terms bc understanding them is the utilitiy for 
effective training 
 
 
 
giving clear definitions helps to 
dispe...
CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 EXAM |58 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS.
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Add to cartCROSSFIT LEVEL 1 EXAM |58 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS.
Define CrossFit 
Constantly varied high intensity functional movement 
 
 
 
Define Variance 
Preparation for random physical challenges unknown and knowable 
 
 
 
Define General Physical Preparedness (GPP) and identify the relationship of variance to GPP 
GPP is broad, general and inclusive and va...
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Add to cartDefine CrossFit 
Constantly varied high intensity functional movement 
 
 
 
Define Variance 
Preparation for random physical challenges unknown and knowable 
 
 
 
Define General Physical Preparedness (GPP) and identify the relationship of variance to GPP 
GPP is broad, general and inclusive and va...
Aims of Crossfit 
Crossfit has been to forge a broad, general, and inclusive fitness. Prepare trainees for any physical contingency-prepare them not only the unknown but for the unknowable. 
 
 
 
Prescription of Crossfit 
Crossfit is: "Constantly vaired, High-intensity, functional movement." This...
Preview 3 out of 19 pages
Add to cartAims of Crossfit 
Crossfit has been to forge a broad, general, and inclusive fitness. Prepare trainees for any physical contingency-prepare them not only the unknown but for the unknowable. 
 
 
 
Prescription of Crossfit 
Crossfit is: "Constantly vaired, High-intensity, functional movement." This...
Rhabdomyolysis 
*Medical condition that may arise from the breakdown of muscle cells contents in to the bloodstream. 
*develops from high intensity or high volume exercise or any other process that damages muscles. 
 
 
 
Symptoms of Rhabdomyolysis 
Generalized muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, abdomin...
Preview 3 out of 17 pages
Add to cartRhabdomyolysis 
*Medical condition that may arise from the breakdown of muscle cells contents in to the bloodstream. 
*develops from high intensity or high volume exercise or any other process that damages muscles. 
 
 
 
Symptoms of Rhabdomyolysis 
Generalized muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, abdomin...
Single element day : improvement of the _____ and not on total _____ effect 
element, metabolic 
 
 
 
Two-element day : "____-priority" because it is set and the time varies. ___ - ____ interval management is critical. 
task, work, rest 
 
 
 
Three-element days : "____-priority" because the at...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartSingle element day : improvement of the _____ and not on total _____ effect 
element, metabolic 
 
 
 
Two-element day : "____-priority" because it is set and the time varies. ___ - ____ interval management is critical. 
task, work, rest 
 
 
 
Three-element days : "____-priority" because the at...
_____ is a hormone produced by the pancreas, and you cannot live without it 
Insulin 
 
 
 
_____ is responsible for storage of energy in cells 
Insulin 
 
 
 
Your insulin level would be too high if you eat too much _____ 
carbohydrate 
 
 
 
Zone block prescription = ____ x _____/7 (g of protein) ...
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Add to cart_____ is a hormone produced by the pancreas, and you cannot live without it 
Insulin 
 
 
 
_____ is responsible for storage of energy in cells 
Insulin 
 
 
 
Your insulin level would be too high if you eat too much _____ 
carbohydrate 
 
 
 
Zone block prescription = ____ x _____/7 (g of protein) ...
Air squats: 
- _____ (hip or shoulder) - width stance 
- ____ descend back and down 
- ____ curve maintained 
- Knees in line with _____ 
- Hips descend lower than _____ 
- _____ down 
- Complete at full ___ and knee extension 
Shoulder, hips, lumbar, toes, knees, heels, hip 
 
 
 
Air squat fault :...
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Add to cartAir squats: 
- _____ (hip or shoulder) - width stance 
- ____ descend back and down 
- ____ curve maintained 
- Knees in line with _____ 
- Hips descend lower than _____ 
- _____ down 
- Complete at full ___ and knee extension 
Shoulder, hips, lumbar, toes, knees, heels, hip 
 
 
 
Air squat fault :...
What is Crossfit? 
constantly varied, high-intensity, functional movement 
 
 
 
What is power? 
the time rate of doing work 
 
 
 
What is the most important characteristic of functional movement? 
Capacity to move large loads over long distance (high power producing) 
 
 
 
What are the characteri...
Preview 3 out of 21 pages
Add to cartWhat is Crossfit? 
constantly varied, high-intensity, functional movement 
 
 
 
What is power? 
the time rate of doing work 
 
 
 
What is the most important characteristic of functional movement? 
Capacity to move large loads over long distance (high power producing) 
 
 
 
What are the characteri...
What is the purpose of nutrition? 
Nutrition provides the fuel and raw materials for all life's processes (i.e., metabolism). 
 
 
 
What year did CrossFit Journal publish, "The Theoretical of the development of an Athlete"? 
The year 2002 
 
 
 
What is "The Theoretical of the development of an...
Preview 2 out of 14 pages
Add to cartWhat is the purpose of nutrition? 
Nutrition provides the fuel and raw materials for all life's processes (i.e., metabolism). 
 
 
 
What year did CrossFit Journal publish, "The Theoretical of the development of an Athlete"? 
The year 2002 
 
 
 
What is "The Theoretical of the development of an...
Rhabdomyolysis is a medical condition that might arise from breakdown of _____ _____ and release of the muscle cells' contents into the blood stream 
muscle tissue 
 
 
 
Rhabdomyolysis can damage the _____ and can lead to ____ failure or death 
kidneys, renal 
 
 
 
Rhabdomyolysis is diagnosed whe...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartRhabdomyolysis is a medical condition that might arise from breakdown of _____ _____ and release of the muscle cells' contents into the blood stream 
muscle tissue 
 
 
 
Rhabdomyolysis can damage the _____ and can lead to ____ failure or death 
kidneys, renal 
 
 
 
Rhabdomyolysis is diagnosed whe...
Define Technique 
The movements the athlete completes to accomplish the task 
 
 
 
Articulate how technique confers safety, efficacy, and efficiency 
technique ensures reslts that are measuable, observable, and repeatable 
 
 
 
Explain the relationship of coordination, accuracy, agility, and balan...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartDefine Technique 
The movements the athlete completes to accomplish the task 
 
 
 
Articulate how technique confers safety, efficacy, and efficiency 
technique ensures reslts that are measuable, observable, and repeatable 
 
 
 
Explain the relationship of coordination, accuracy, agility, and balan...
Define CrossFit? 
Constantly varied, high-intensity, functional movement 
 
 
 
Characteristics of Functional Movements 
Natural 
Universal Recruitment patterns 
Essential 
Safe 
Compound yet irreducible 
Core to extremity 
High power producing 
 
 
 
What is the most important characteristic of fun...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cartDefine CrossFit? 
Constantly varied, high-intensity, functional movement 
 
 
 
Characteristics of Functional Movements 
Natural 
Universal Recruitment patterns 
Essential 
Safe 
Compound yet irreducible 
Core to extremity 
High power producing 
 
 
 
What is the most important characteristic of fun...
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