100% satisfaction guarantee Immediately available after payment Both online and in PDF No strings attached
logo-home
EPIC CLN 251/252 PACKAGE DEAL|ALL GRADED A |GUARANTEED SUCCESS $70.99   Add to cart

Package deal

EPIC CLN 251/252 PACKAGE DEAL|ALL GRADED A |GUARANTEED SUCCESS

EPIC CLN 251/252 PACKAGE DEAL|ALL GRADED A |GUARANTEED SUCCESS

209 items

Texas Eyelash Extensions License Exam |97 questions fully solved

(1)
$15.49

1x sold

4 rounds the number of times you should comb through the lashes to check for separation of the lashes and stickies Straight Tweezers tweezers used to hold the side lashes away from the main isolated lash Curved Tweezers used to isolate the lash that you will then be placing on eyela...

View example

TDLR Eyelash extensions| 85 questions and answers.

(1)
$13.99

single use items an item that is pourus & constructed of cloth, wood, or other absorbant material having rough surfaces chlorine bleach solution for LOW level Gallon of bleach & 2 teaspoons of water Multi-use An item constructed of hard materials with smooth surface such as metal, g...

View example

TDLR Eyelash Extension Review exam |90 questions and answers 2023

(1)
$13.99

Cleaning The process of using soap and water or detergent and water to remove all visible dirt debris and many disease causing germs. Disinfection A chemical process that uses specific products to destroy harmful organisms (except bacterial spores) on environmental surfaces. Steriliz...

View example

Eyelash Extensions Written Exam|151 questions with correct answers.

(1)
$16.49

The form that notifies the buyer and user of potential health and safety hazards associated with its use is a_________. MSDS sheets MSDS means Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) __________ is the main ingredient in most eyelash extensions adhesives today. Cyanoacrylate _______...

View example

TDLR Texas Cosmetology Laws and Rules Book |80 questions and answers.

(1)
$15.49

A razor that is fitted with a guard close to the cutting edge safety razor Cosmetology does not include what service threading How old do you have to be to be eligible for a license? 17 How many hours do you have to have to obtain a instructor license? 750 hours (at least 18...

View example

TDLR Fees test questions and answers

(1)
$13.49

Application Fee For Operator License $50 Application Fee For Specialty License- Esthetician, Manicurist, Eyelash Extension $50 Application Fee For Specialty Certificate- Hair Weaving $50 Application Fee For Student Permit $25 Application Fee For Instructor License $6...

View example

Lash PSI Exam questions and answers 2023

(1)
$14.49

how often does the risk-based department inspect each shop or other facility that holds a license, certificate, or permit in which the practice of barbering or cosmetology? At least once every 2 years The department shall deny anyone or revoke a certificate, license, or permit if? Someone a...

View example

TDLR EXAMEN ESTENSIONES DE PESTANAS(SOLVED).

(2)
$13.49

1x sold

CADA CUANDO SE DEBE RENOVAR SU LICENCIA DE EXTENSIONES DE PESTAÑAS? CADA DOS AÑOS CUANTAS HORAS DE EDUCACION CONTINUA SON REQUERIDAS PARA LA RENOVACION DE SU LICENCIA? 4 HORAS CON CUANTO TIEMPO DEBE AVISAR AL DEPARTAMENTO DE LICENSIAS EN CASO DE CAMBIO DE NOMBRE O DIRECCION CON 30...

View example

TDLR Cosmetology Fees exam questions and answers.

(1)
$15.99

Operator License $50 Specialty License--Esthetician, Manicurist, Esthetician/Manicurist, Eyelash Extension $50 Specialty Certificate--Hair Weaving, Wig $50 Student Permit $25 Instructor License $60 Instructor Specialty License--Esthetician, Manicurist, Estheti...

View example

CLC 059 Subcontracting exam questions and answers

(1)
$13.99

What is a purchase order, task order, or other contract between a prime contractor and another business to support the prime contract and to which the government has no contractual relationship, i.e., no privity? Subcontract Which of the following are key, recommended resources for subcontra...

View example

CLC 059 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

4x sold

CLC 059 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

View example

CLC 059 Management of Subcontracting Compliance questions and answers.

(1)
$12.99

When FAR 52.244-6 is included in noncommercial contracts, it identifies the clauses to be included in what kinds of subcontracts? Subcontracts for commercial or non-developmental items. How will the inclusion of the flow-down clauses in CD 2018-O0021 or FAR 52.244-6 impact post-award subcont...

View example

CLM 059 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

Small businesses operate in an environment that includes a variety of entities, each with its own interests and influence on small business participation in Government acquisition Congress generates the legislation that impacts acquisition regulations and policy. Since the Depression of the 1930...

View example

CLC entrance exam questions with correct answers.

(1)
$15.99

Mounted Reconnaissance -enables a more rapid tempo while increasing the potential compromise of reconnaissance efforts. Takes advantage of standoff capabilities provided by surveillance and weapon systems to observe and engage from greater distances and or the speed associated with mounted movem...

View example

WGU D333 Ethics in Technology – WGU |332 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$16.49

acceptable use policy (AUP) A document that stipulates restrictions and practices that a user must agree in order to use organizational computing and network resources. acceptance When an organization decides to accept a risk because the cost of avoiding the risk outweighs the potential los...

View example

WGU D333 Ethics in Technology exam questions and answers.

(1)
$14.49

Utilitarianism idea that the goal of society should be to bring about the greatest happiness for the greatest number of people Consequentialism An ethical system that determines the goodness or evilness from the effect or result of an act. Utilitarianism/Consequentialism utilitarian...

View example

D333 - Ethics in Technology WGU (Applicable Laws) questions and answers.

(1)
$15.99

Fair Credit Reporting Act regulates the operations of credit reporting bureaus. Right to Financial Privacy Act protects the financial records of financial institution customers from unauthorized scrutiny by the federal government. Gramm Leach Bliley Act (GLBA) established mandatory ...

View example

D333 Pre-assessment Ethic in Technology |164 questions and answers 2023

(1)
$15.99

D333 Pre-assessment Ethic in Technology |164 questions and answers 2023

View example

Ethics Review D333 WGU |212 questions with correct answers.

(1)
$15.49

1x sold

Malware that stops you from using your computer until you meet certain demands is categorized as: Ransomware Flooding a target website with automated requests for data in order to reduce its usefulness for legitimate users is called: DDoS attack Using fraudulent emails in order to tr...

View example

Ethics in Technology WGU |113 questions and answers.

(1)
$15.99

right of privacy "the right to be left alone -- the most comprehensive of rights, and the right most valued by a free people information privacy The combination of communications privacy (the ability to communicate with others without those communications being monitored by other persons o...

View example

WGU D333 Ethics in Technology – LAWS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS 2023

(1)
$15.99

Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) An agreement of the World Trade Organization that requires member governments to ensure that intellectual property rights can be enforced under their laws and that penalties for infringement are tough enough to deter further...

View example

D333 Pre-assessment Ethic in Technology with 100% correct answers

(1)
$15.49

Two programmers disagree about which philosophical theory is best suited for their autonomous vehicles. One programmer suggests their vehicle should always choose the greatest good for the greatest number of people. Which philosophical theory encapsulates this stance? Utilitarianism Wh...

View example

AMMO 49 |35 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$16.99

AMMO 49 |35 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

View example

Ammo 49 2023 oct exam questions with 100% correct answers.

(1)
$15.49

Ammo 49 2023 oct exam questions with 100% correct answers.

View example

AMMO 49 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.99

AMMO 49 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

View example

AMMO 49 study guide with 100% correct answers

(1)
$14.99

AMMO 49 study guide with 100% correct answers

View example

Ammo 49&18 NKO questions with 100% correct answers.

(1)
$14.49

What are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? -Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations -Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer -Keeping site maps up to date What is the correct order of the five steps in th...

View example

AMMO 49 TEST QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.99

AMMO 49 TEST QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS.

View example

Ammo Handler exam questions with correct answers

(1)
$14.99

--- checks all landfill items before putting them in the dumpster --- open all cans, boxes, and container, and remove both cap ends on fiber, and plastic container --- removes or obliterate explosive labels and markings What tasks does the Ammunition Handler do to process a unit 's residue turn-...

View example

Ammo Handler 2023 with 100% correct answers (verified for accuracy).

(1)
$13.99

Who is responsible for reviewing ammunition issue authorization form? Stock Control Specialist What is DA Form 1687 used for? Identifies who is authorized to receive the ammunition issue. How does the Stock Control Specialist know what ammunition items the unit requires for the train...

View example

AMMO 45 EXAM WITH CORRECT ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

AMMO 45 EXAM WITH CORRECT ANSWERS

View example

Ammo-68 with 100% correct answers already graded A+

(1)
$13.99

Military Munitions (MM) includes all items (such as bullets, bombs, projectiles, and grenades) produced and used by or for the U.S. Department of Defense and its Armed Services for national defense and security purposes. MM also includes items under the control of the Department of Energy. ...

View example

ammo 67 exam questions with verified solutions.

(1)
$15.99

Types of hazmat transportation land (highway/rail) sea air Define hazmat any material or substance capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property when transported. What training does the HAZMAT Familiarization and Safety in Transportation course provide? ap...

View example

AMMO 49 WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS VERIFIED FOR ACCURACY 2023

(1)
$15.49

AMMO 49 WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS VERIFIED FOR ACCURACY 2023

View example

Ammo 51 test questions with verified solutions.

(1)
$14.49

Ammo 51 test questions with verified solutions.

View example

Ammo 51 test questions with verified solutions.

(1)
$14.49

Ammo 51 test questions with verified solutions.

View example

AMMO-45 Exam 2023 with correct answers.

(1)
$14.49

AMMO-45 Exam 2023 with correct answers.

View example

AMMO 49 WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+

(1)
$15.99

AMMO 49 WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+

View example

Ammo 67 exam 2023 with 100% correct answers

(1)
$14.49

Which of the following topics are included in this hazmat familiarization and safety and transportation training? Select all that apply B, C, D Hazmat represents materials or substances capable of posing in unreasonable risk to: select all that apply A, B, D What type of penalty resu...

View example

AMMO 68 EXAM(SOLVED & UPDATED 2023)

(1)
$13.99

Chemical Munitions and Agents are _____ Military Munitions Are DoD units outside the U.S. subject to RCRA? No States may impose less stringent requirements than those in the Military Munitions Rule (MMR). False Which of these is considered a used military munition? 40mm gren...

View example

Ammo 18 NKO questions and answers

(1)
$14.49

What are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? -Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations -Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer -Keeping site maps up to date What is the correct order of the five steps in th...

View example

Military Munitions Rule- AMMO 51 Answers

(1)
$14.49

You should keep emergency response record for at least 3 years Who determines if an explosive emergency is a level 1 or level 2? Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) specialist A range has a large bin for storing munition waste. when the bin is full, it is sent to a TSDF for disposal. A...

View example

ammunition handlers ammo 108 course practice exam questions and answers

(1)
$16.49

Which of the following is not a placard requirement when shipping HAZMAT? True Which form do you use to transfer ammunition to range personnel or other unit personnel? Da form 581 Malfunctions include hang fires, duds, abnormal functioning and: Cook-offs Which form do you use...

View example

Ammo 69 CDF questions and answers 2023.

(1)
$14.99

2x sold

Following the catastrophic ordnance incident involving an Mk 24 aircraft parachute flare aboard the USS Oriskany (CVA-34) in 1966, the Flag Board of inquiry determined that the accident was partially due to? the lack of training Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Qual/Cert...

View example

Ammo 64 questions and answers already graded A+

(1)
$14.49

1x sold

What is the Purpose of the TAMIS Training AmmunitionsForecast Report(TAFR)? Specify yearly training ammunition needs for each unit Which units are allowed to pick up ammunition? SGT E5 and above. What is the purpose of DA Form 1687? Authorize specified individuals to request and/or ...

View example

Ammo practice questions and answerS

(1)
$14.99

What are lot numbers used for? Used by manufactures for quality control What are the parts to lot numbers? Manufactures Identification code (MIC) (identifies primary manufacturer of the round) Year/month of production (I not used) Lot Interfix number Tenth Position Sequence Number (roun...

View example

Ammo exam questions with complete solutions

(1)
$14.99

What is ammo classified according to? physical properties how are explosives classified? combustion rate what are small arms ammo? ammo under 30mm How much do grenades weigh? 1 - 1.5ibs What is an FSG and what does it do? Federal Supply Group; divides ammo into serie...

View example

Ammo 49&18 NKO questions and answers

(1)
$14.99

What are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? -Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations -Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer -Keeping site maps up to date What is the correct order of the five steps in th...

View example

Ammo 18 NKO questions with 100% correct answers

(1)
$16.49

What are the responsibilities of the Explosives Safety (ES) office? -Implementing and enforcing the Naval Explosives Safety Policy and regulations -Reporting the status of an emergency to the commanding officer -Keeping site maps up to date What is the correct order of the five steps in th...

View example

AMMO 67, HAZMAT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

SPC Chu Hurried to leave the ASP after loading the truck. She noticed some shipping papers were missing but didn't notify the ASP. after wrecking the truck, she learned the explosives were incompatible. What violation did she commit? Crimminal What type of hazard is identified by the image?...

View example

AMMO 51 MV QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$16.99

Which regulation establishes the Department of Defense (DOD) policies and procedures for the transportation and movement of material? DTR 4500.9-R Which volume of the NAVSEA OP5 applies to the transportation of hazardous materials ashore? Volume 1 Which Department of Transportation S...

View example

Ammo Physical Security practice exam questions fully solved & updated 2023.

(1)
$14.99

You are on guard duty at a category I missile and rocket storage area. Which additional restriction do you have to enforce? don't let just one authorized person in (two-person rule) While guarding a category II and III storage area, the following people ask to enter the restricted area. Whi...

View example

Identification of Ammo test questions and answers.

(1)
$14.99

ammunition any material that is fired, scattered, dropped, thrown, propelled, or denotation DODAC FSC and the DODIC (except repair and industrial) TB composed of NSN and DoD codes for ammo and parts SB 708-21 contains FSGs and FSCs ammunition lot the quantity of amm...

View example

Ammo 49 2021 oct questions and answers.

(1)
$14.99

Ammo 49 2021 oct questions and answers.

View example

Ammunition Handler's Course questions fully solved 2023.

(1)
$15.49

When using specially controlled training ammunition items, a DA Form 5692 must be used. Who is required to sign this form? Commander The range ammunition NCO asks you to transfer two cases of unopened ammunition to him. Which form would you use to do this? DA Form 581 Before leaving ...

View example

Ammo 51 Answers 2023 latest update

(1)
$14.99

When HC/D 1 4S does NOT require a label, it also does NOT require a Placard What is the purpose of the DD Form 626? To provide for mechanical inspection of the motor vehicle and cargo spaces Which code identifies the degree of security assigned to an item? CIIC A sailor needs...

View example

INTRODUCTION TO AMMUNITION (Cert) (AMMO-45) QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$15.99

Which of these true statements about bombs differentiate bombs from artillery ammo, rockets, and missiles? Bombs are not fired from a weapon Cartridges for shotguns and .50 caliber and smaller cartridges are which category of ammunition? Small arms ammunition Ammunition pallets may b...

View example

DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification |612 questions and answers.

(1)
$16.49

Why do childcare professionals observe and screen children? So they can facilitate the growth and development of every child in their program, detect early signs of development, delay or disability, and identify signs of child abuse or neglect. Observation an ongoing process in which child ...

View example

DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification- Rules and Regulations (Florida) 2023 questions and answers

(1)
$16.99

Florida Law Bill passed and signed by FL legislators Rules implement, interpret, and describe law Ordinance local laws that only apply within jurisdiction Regulation law, rule, or ordinance to regulate conduct Florida Statutes permanent collection of the states laws,...

View example

DCF 40 hour training 2023 questions and answers

(1)
$15.99

Regulation is a law, rule, ordinance, or other order prescribed by authority, especially to regulate conduct. Child care the care, protection, and supervision of a child for a period of less than 24 hours a day on a regular basis A child care program is either licensed, registered or...

View example

FL DCF 40 Hrs, CHILD CARE FACILITIES RULE AND REGULATIONS (RNRF) |170 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS.docx

(1)
$14.99

DCF Department of Children and Families DCF Responsibilities Administration of child care licensing and training Ensuring children are well cared for in a safe, healthy, positive, and educational environment by trained, qualified child care staff This agency determines state rules per...

View example

DCF 40 Hours Child Care (HSAN) Health, Safety, and Nutrition (2023) |152 questions and answers.

(1)
$14.99

Appetite A desire to eat. Isolation Area A designated area for a child who becomes ill at the facility, which must be away from the other, healthy children. Safety Hazards Things in the environment that can be identified as dangerous to one's health and welfare. Communicable...

View example

DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification- Understanding Developmentally Appropriate Practices (Florida) 2023

(1)
$13.49

What affect does quality early care on children? "...children who have high-quality care see academic benefits lasting into high school." DAP Developmentally Appropriate Practice focuses on children birth to eight years old and is made up of three principle components: age appropriateness...

View example

DCF child care 40 hour- Behavior Observation |61 questions and answers.

(1)
$14.99

Observation when a child care worker recognizes and notes an identifiable performance or behavior and uses instruments such as checklists, anecdotal records and running records. The instruments are used to measure progress against a standard and to share results with assessment experts. Sc...

View example

DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification- Child Abuse and Neglect (Florida) 2023 questions and answers already graded A+.docx

(1)
$14.99

Physical Abuse The mistreatment of a child by a person responsible for the child's welfare that results in injury or harm to the child Sexual Abuse Sexual contact or interaction between a child and an adult or older child. Includes indecent exposure, fondling, touching sexual organs, forci...

View example

DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification- Health, Safety, and Nutrition (Florida) 2023 questions fully solved

(1)
$14.99

Health Appetite A desire to eat Impermeable Surface A surface that is resistant to water, chemicals and other fluids. Required in areas such as changing tables, playpens, cots, and sleeping mats. Safety hazards Things in the environment that can be identified as dangerous to ...

View example

DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification- Child Growth and Development (Florida) 2016 with 100% correct answers

(1)
$14.49

Growth specific body changed and increases in the child's size Babies can grow ___ inches in length and triple their birth weight 10 How many inches will a child grow per year after their first year? 5 per year until about age 3 How many inches will a child grow after 3 year...

View example

Early Childhood Education Theorists, DCF 40 Hours Child Care (HSAN) Health, Safety, and Nutrition (2019),

(1)
$14.99

Albert Bandura (Social Learning Theory) •Vicarious vs. Enactive (learning by watching vs. learning by doing) •Four Elements of Observational Learning: 1. Attention 2. Retention 3. Production 4. Motivation & Reinforcement •Four Sources of Self-Efficacy Appraisals: 1. Actual Performanc...

View example

DCF RNRF CHILD CARE FACILITY RULES and REGULATIONS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

child care The care, protection, and supervision of a child, for a period of less than 24hrs a day on a regular basis, which supplements parental care, enrichment, and health supervision for the child, in accordance with his or her individual needs, and for which a payment, fee or grant is made for...

View example

DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification-|612 questions with correct answers.

(1)
$18.99

Florida Department of Children of Families This agency determines state rules pertaining to child care and enforces these rules by licensing and inspecting child care facilities. Local Fire Department This agency inspects child care facilities and educates child care professionals about min...

View example

Child Care Facility Rules and Regulations- DCF |114 questions with correct answers

(1)
$14.99

Florida Law Bill passed and signed by FL legislators Rules implement, interpret, and describe law Ordinance local laws that only apply within jurisdiction Regulation law, rule, or ordinance to regulate conduct Florida Statutes permanent collection of the states laws,...

View example

DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification- Rules and Regulations (Florida) 2023| 103 questions and answers

(1)
$14.99

Florida Law Bill passed and signed by FL legislators Rules implement, interpret, and describe law Ordinance local laws that only apply within jurisdiction Regulation law, rule, or ordinance to regulate conduct Florida Statutes permanent collection of the states laws,...

View example

DCF 40 hour training practice exam questions and answers

(1)
$15.49

Regulation is a law, rule, ordinance, or other order prescribed by authority, especially to regulate conduct. Child care the care, protection, and supervision of a child for a period of less than 24 hours a day on a regular basis A child care program is either licensed, registered or...

View example

DCF Child Growth and Development CGAD |172 questions and answers

(1)
$14.99

What is a theory? A set of facts or principles analyzed in relation to one another and used to explain phenomena(a fact or behavior that can be observed) How do you create a positive environment for children in your care? *Ensure learning centers have ample space for movement. *Reduce the ...

View example

DCF Childcare Training Courses 1-5| 407 questions and answers

(1)
$15.49

What is a theory? A set of facts or principles analyzed in relation to one another and used to explain phenomena(a fact or behavior that can be observed) How do you create a positive environment for children in your care? *Ensure learning centers have ample space for movement. *Reduce the ...

View example

FL DCF Child Care, Preschool Appropriate Practices (PSPR) (2023)| 265 questions and answers

(1)
$15.99

Developmentally appropriate practice, or DAP, is a concept developed by the National Association for the Education of Young Children (NAEYC). Developmentally Appropriate Practice focuses on children birth to eight years old and is made up of three principle components: age appropriateness, ...

View example

DCF Certification Test - Child Abuse and Neglect questions with 100% correct answers 2023.

(1)
$16.49

Three children die of child abuse in the home in the US each ___ day How many people report child abuse when faced with an actual situation? 1/3 What is the single leading cause of death for children ages 4 and younger? Child Abuse & Neglect On average, child abuse is reporte...

View example

DCF 40 hour training 2021 questions and answers already graded A+

(1)
$15.49

Regulation is a law, rule, ordinance, or other order prescribed by authority, especially to regulate conduct. Child care the care, protection, and supervision of a child for a period of less than 24 hours a day on a regular basis A child care program is either licensed, registered or...

View example

DCF Child Care 40 Hour Certification-|612 QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS

(1)
$16.99

Why do childcare professionals observe and screen children? So they can facilitate the growth and development of every child in their program, detect early signs of development, delay or disability, and identify signs of child abuse or neglect. Observation an ongoing process in which child ...

View example

DCF 40 Hours Child Care (HSAN) Health, Safety, and Nutrition (2019)| 152 questions and answers.

(1)
$15.99

Appetite A desire to eat. Isolation Area A designated area for a child who becomes ill at the facility, which must be away from the other, healthy children. Safety Hazards Things in the environment that can be identified as dangerous to one's health and welfare. Communicable...

View example

AAB MT Basic Knowledge |76 questions with 100% correct answers.

(1)
$15.49

What agency approves new test methodologies, instruments, and reagents before they are available for purchase by consumers? FDA How often should biological safety hoods be inspected? Annually What is the minimum number of standards required for a standard curve? 3 What is the...

View example

AAB MT Hematology| 232 questions with 100% correct answers.

(1)
$15.49

What is hemoglobin composed of? 4 heme, 4 iron, 4 globins What disorder does a defect in heme synthesis lead to? Porphyria Porphyria Deficiency in the enzymes of the porphyrin pathway leads to insufficient production of heme. The principal problem in these deficiencies is the accumu...

View example

AAB MT Exam General Knowledge General Operations |32 questions with correct answers.

(1)
$13.99

What are four types of centrifuges commonly used in the clinical lab? Tabletop, Micro, High-Speed, and Ultra. What does the daily maintenance of a centrifuge commonly consist of? Cleaned with 10% bleach What does the periodic maintenance of a centrifuge commonly consist of? Speed ch...

View example

MT AAB Study guide quizlet cards| 1764 questions and answers 2023.

(1)
$20.99

What term describes the morphology of organisms that vary in shape and size? Pleomorphic i.e. coccobacilli Bacteriology arrangements: -pairs (diplococci "N. Gon"; diplobacilli -chains (streptococci, streptobacilli) -grape like clusters (staphylococci) -group of four-tetrads (peptoco...

View example

AAB MT Chemistry- Practice |114 questions and answers

(1)
$14.99

Which of the following aminoacidopathies is NOT caused by an enzyme deficiency? Choose one answer. a. phenylketonuria b. alkaptonuria c. maple syrup disease d. cystinuria d. cystinuria What method is most commonly used to measure total protein? Choose one answer. a. dye binding b. Kj...

View example

AAB MT Microbiology |215 questions with 100% correct answers

(1)
$15.49

What term describes the morphology of organisms that vary in shape and size? Pleomorphic Capsules are the basis of which test? Serotyping A mucoid colony on blood agar medium indicates that which of the following characteristics may be present? Organism has a capsule. What ar...

View example

MT AAB Chemistry |215 questions with 100% correct answers already graded A+

(1)
$14.49

Which of the four elements in proteins differentiated this class of substances from carbohydrates and lipids? Nitrogen Which of the proteins is soluble in water? Albumin How are amino acids joined together to form a chainlike structure? Peptide bonding Proteins may become den...

View example

MT AAB Immunology |212 questions with 100% verified correct answers

(1)
$13.99

Which of the following is not an external defense mechanism of natural immunity that provides the human body with a defense against invading microorganisms? Bursa of Fabricius All of the following are external defense mechanisms of natural immunity that provides the human body with a defense...

View example

AAB MT Microbiology 2023 |215 questions with 100% correct answers.

(1)
$15.49

What term describes the morphology of organisms that vary in shape and size? Pleomorphic Capsules are the basis of which test? Serotyping A mucoid colony on blood agar medium indicates that which of the following characteristics may be present? Organism has a capsule. What ar...

View example

AAB MT Exam Chem Urinalysis & Body Fluids| 158 questions and answers.

(1)
$15.49

What consists of the gross renal anatomy? Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, and Urethra What is the anatomy of the Nephron? Glomerulus. proximal convoluted tubule, descending Loop of Henle, Ascending Loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, and collecting duct. What are the 3 primary functi...

View example

Chemistry MT AAB board exam review #1 with 100% correct answers.

(1)
$14.99

Specimens that can be analyzed for carbon dioxide 1. Serum 2. Plasma 3. Whole blood What will happen if blood is exposed to air during specimen collection for pH and blood gases? p C O 2 decreases Henderson-Hasselbalch equation p H = p k a + log salt / acid What is the rati...

View example

AAB MT Immunology Review questions and answers

(1)
$14.99

Concerning antigen-antibody reactions, the prozone effect causes which of the following results? A. False positive B. False negative C. No reaction D. Mixed field reaction B. False negative The following characteristics are applicable to Interferon-Gamma Release Assays (IGRAs) except: ...

View example

AAB Basic Knowledge-MT practice questions and answers.

(1)
$14.49

Centrifuges (4) #1- Table top centrifuges are used in clinical labs to separate cells from serum or plasma. #2- Micro-centrifuges are small centrifuges used for small plastic conical containers with an integral snap cap. #3- High speed centrifuges reach speeds b/w 17,000 & 30,000 rpm. #4- Ultra ...

View example

MT AAB Immunohematology |220 questions and answers 2023.

(1)
$15.49

All of the following blood donors would be permanently deferred except which one? 38yr old male who received rabies vaccine after a dog bite 3mos ago What is the interval blood donations? 8 weeks The oral temperature of a donor must not exceed which value? 37.5C 99.5F What is...

View example

AAB MT Generalist Random Q's & A’s

(1)
$16.49

The diagnostic value of the reticulocyte count in the evaluation of anemia is that it determines the: Response and potential of the bone marrow The greatest risk for the manifestation of anomalies in maternal rubella infection during gestation is the: First trimester The hepatitis B ...

View example

EPA LEAD RISK ASSESSOR EXAM STUDY GUIDE WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

(0)
$14.49

HUD Guidelines What Federal document serves as an overall guideline for performing inspections, risk assessments, and abatement activities? chelation therapy A child may be treated for lead poisoning by using... Identify LBP hazards The purpose of a lead risk assessment is to? ...

View example

EPA Risk assessor WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

At which of the following ages are children in the most danger of lead exposure and the health effects from that exposure? 1-3 years of age Lead may be absorbed through the intestines after it is ingested. What is the effect on the absorption of lead when people don't eat properly? More le...

View example

EPA MODEL LEAD BASED PAINT RISK ASSESSOR| 373 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.99

1978 When did they reduce to Lead Levels in consumer products The underside of a horizontal surface which projects beyond a wall line, such as an overhanging roof. What is a soffit? False T/F: The risk assessor should be involved in the process of selecting a contractor. 1. T...

View example

EPA LEAD RISK ASSESSOR CERT.EXAM| 126 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$16.49

ug/g micrograms per gram ug/ft2 micrograms per foot squared(xrf) mg/cm2 milligrams per centimeter squared (XRF) mg/dl milligrams per deciliter ug/m3 microgram per deci-liter (quantity in blood) 1% 10,000 ppm allowed quantity of lead in dry surface pain...

View example

EPA LEAD RISK ASSESSOR CERT. EXAM| 186 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

ug/g microgram per gram ug/ft2 microgram per foot square (dust sampling) mg/cm2 milligrams per centimeter squared (XRF) ug/dL microgram per deci-liter ug/m3 microgram per deci-liter (quantity in blood) 1% 10,000 ppm Allowed quantity of lead in dry surf...

View example

RISK ASSESSOR STUDY GUIDE| 101 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$15.49

How much lead must be in the paint to be considered contaminated? greater than or equal to 1.0 mg/cm2 or 0.5% by weight What did Title X do? -Shifted the federal government's focus from LBP to LBP hazards -mandated action by many branches of federal govt to reduce lead hazards in housing ...

View example

LEAD INSPECTOR /RISK ASSESSOR| 1810 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$19.99

Permanent abatement options include... Paint removal, component removal, enclosure, encapsulation Lead Inspector A certified individual who conducts a surface-by-surface investigation to determine the presence of lead-based paint. Lead-based paint 1 mg/cm2 5000micrograms/g = 5000p...

View example

LEAD RISK ASSESSOR |58 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$12.49

HUD Guidelines What Federal document serves as an overall guideline for performing inspections, risk assessments, and abatement activities? chelation therapy A child may be treated for lead poisoning by using... Identify LBP hazards The purpose of a lead risk assessment is to? ...

View example

2023 WI LEAD RISK ASSESSOR EXAM| 93 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.99

EPA and WI DHS Lead Based Paint Definition ≥0.5% ≥1.0 mg/cm2 Nationally houses built before 1978_______ have lead based pain 75% XRF X-ray fluorescence Factors that should be considered for XRF: - Substrate Correction - inconclusive range - measuring K & L shell readi...

View example

LEAD RISK ASSESSOR| 67 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.

(1)
$14.99

True or False you should always include inconclusive lead results in a HUD report. False, never include inconclusive results True or False, at home test kit results can only be included in a report if they indicate that a home has lead. False, at home test kits can only be included in repor...

View example

US EPA MODEL LEAD INSPECTOR |564 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$17.49

US EPA MODEL LEAD INSPECTOR |564 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

View example

EPA LEAD INSPECTOR| 111 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.99

Lead-based paint (LBP) Any varnish, shallac, or coating that contains either- 1.0 mg/cm2 - 0.5 % by weight - 5000 ppm - Older instruments could not read accurately at 0.7, so the lead standard was updated to 1.0 Dust sample clearance values - Floors: 40 μg/ft2 > 10 μg/ft2 (10 μg/ft2 i...

View example

EPA LEAD INSPECTOR| 38 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$15.49

lead based paint 1mg/cm^2 or .5% by weight title X aka Residential Lead-Based Paint Hazard Reduction Act of 1992 -shifted focus of federal legislation from acting on existing lead-based paint hazards to preventing new hazards from occurring -has regs governing the training and certifcatio...

View example

NJ LEAD INSPECTOR RISK ASSESSOR FINAL| 124 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

What percentage of lead is in drinking water for children? 20% What does Title X focus on? Focuses attention on source of lead that could poison children. What areas in the waterline produce high lead levels in water? Poorly Soldered joints where brass fittings are. With insp...

View example

RISK ASSESSOR |180 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.49

Risk Assessment/ On site investigation of a residential dwelling for lead-based paint hazards • Lead based paint/ any varnish paint shellac or other coating that contains that equal to or access to 1.0 milligrams centimeters squared • lead based paint hazard -a condition in which e...

View example

LEAD INSPECTOR/ ASSESSOR COURSE |285 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.49

Permanent abatement options include... Paint removal, component removal, enclosure, encapsulation What agencies focus on childhood lead poisoning prevention? CDPH, HUD, EPA What is the CAL OSHA Standard for lead? Title 8 CCR 1532.1 What is the Guidelines for the Evaluation an...

View example

OHIO LEAD RISK ASSESSOR STUDY GUIDE TERMS |156 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$15.99

Lead was used in paint because it Adds durability and serves as a drying agent. Lead is sometimes found in drinking water because lead is in Pipe solder and plumbing fixtures. What form of lead is often found in house paint? WHITE LEAD How much lead must be present in a paint...

View example

ILLINOIS LEAD RISK ASSESSOR GUIDE - JUNE 2023| 86 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.99

Water Lead Action Level 5 ppb Soil High Contact Area Action Level 400 ppm Soil General Action Level 1200 ppm Soil Abatement Level 5000 ppm Soil IDPH Regulatory Level 1000 ppm Paint Chip - HUD hazard level 5000 ppm or 0.5% Lead by weight Consumer Produc...

View example

EPA RRP REVIEW| 49 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.99

1978 The year lead paint was banned in all residential paint in the U.S. Dust The primary form of LBL through which lead poisoning occurs in children in residential homes. Blood Lead Level Test The best way to determine whether a person/child has lead poisoning. .5% by weight...

View example

LEAD INSPECTOR STUDY GUIDE |47 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.49

Lead Was used in paint because it: Ads Durability and serves as a drying agent Lead is sometimes found in drinking water because lead is in: Pipe solder and Plumbing fixtures. What form of lead is often found in house paint? White Lead How much lead must be present in a paint...

View example

EPA RRP |48 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$15.49

Lead paint was banned in all residential paint in the U.S. beginning in ___________ 1978 The primary form of LBL through which lead poisoning occurs in children in residential homes is _________ Dust The best way to determine whether a person/child had lead poisoning is by obtaining ...

View example

LEAD IA EXAM PRACTICE| 63 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.99

which federal agencies are actively involved in developing lead regulations and policies? EPA, OSHA, HUD what role does OSHA play in the prevention of lead poisoning? inspects job sites for worker safety and sets standards for worker protection Three are REQUIRED by OSHA for exposure...

View example

RISK ASSESSMENT EXAM 3 TOXICITY ASSESSMENT| 36 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

RISK ASSESSMENT EXAM 3 TOXICITY ASSESSMENT| 36 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

View example

LEAD INSPECTOR STUDY GUIDE |47 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023

(1)
$14.49

Lead Was used in paint because it: Ads Durability and serves as a drying agent Lead is sometimes found in drinking water because lead is in: Pipe solder and Plumbing fixtures. What form of lead is often found in house paint? White Lead How much lead must be present in a paint...

View example

LEAD IA EXAM PRACTICE |63 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.

(1)
$11.99

which federal agencies are actively involved in developing lead regulations and policies? EPA, OSHA, HUD what role does OSHA play in the prevention of lead poisoning? inspects job sites for worker safety and sets standards for worker protection Three are REQUIRED by OSHA for exposure...

View example

LEAD ABATEMENT SUPERVISOR 113 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.

(1)
$14.49

Identify the materials used for enclosure Drywall vinyl siding Plywood Paneling Caulk and sealant Hazards that exist in residential environments Lead dust Lead contaminated soil Peeling, chipping paint Folk remedies Describe how children are typically exposed to lead Hand to ...

View example

LEAD EXAM| 83 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

What are exemptions to Target Housing ? Zero bedroom dwelling units, housing exclusively for the elderly or disabled, housing certified as lead free by an accredited lead inspector, emergencies. How long should water not be used prior to sampling for lead ? 6 hours What is the lead h...

View example

ACLS VERSION A| 50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.49

you find an unresponsive patient who is not breathing. after activating the emergency response system, you determine that there is no pulse. what is your next action? start chest compressions at a rate of at least 100/min. you are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. the blood press...

View example

ACLS CERTIFICATION EXAM QUIZ 2023 |53 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$13.99

The BLS Survey includes assessing which of the following? Responsiveness, Activate EMS and get AED, Circulation, Defibrillation Basic airway skills include all of the following EXCEPT: Placement of laryngeal mask airway (LMA) Which type of suction catheter provides the most effec...

View example

ACLS COMPLETE 2023 |327 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.99

BEST PLAYLIST I'VE FOUND FOR ALL HEART.ORG ACLS CODES! This is a good starting point for Jose (big Megacode at end): In which situation does bradycardia require treatment? Hypotension Which intervention is most appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole? Epinephrine ...

View example

ACLS VERSION B| 50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023

(1)
$13.99

what should be done to minimize interruptions in chest compressions during CPR? continue CPR while the defibrillator is charging what condition is an indication to stop of withhold resuscitative efforts? safety to threat providers? After verifying the absence of a pulse, you initiate...

View example

ACLS WRITTEN EXAM |136 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$13.99

You find an unresponsive pt. who is not breathing. After activating the emergency response system, you determine there is no pulse. What is your next action? Start chest compressions of at least 100 per min. You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. The blood pressure is 92/50 mm...

View example

ACLS 2022 QUIZ |50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$13.99

given rapidly during compressions IV/IO drug administration during CPR should be Potential oxygen toxicity What is the danger of routinely administering high concentrations of oxygen during post-cardiac arrest period for patients who achieve ROSC? NOT recommended for routine use Rec...

View example

ACLS BLS |41 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$12.49

Who Makes Up the Guidelines? American Heart Association Two subcommittees ACLS Subcommittees EKG Subcommittees In JAMA every 2 years Whats the most common cause of death in adults? Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) Narrowing of small blood vessels which supplies blood and oxygen to the hear...

View example

ACLS CLASS |42 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.

(1)
$14.49

ACLS CLASS| 42 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.

View example

ACLS-PRETEST |60 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.

(1)
$14.99

2nd degree AV block: Mobitz II 2nd degree AV block: Mobitz II 2nd degree AV block: Wenebach 2nd degree AV block: Wenebach 3rd degree AV block Atrial fibrillation Atrial flutter Asystole Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia Normal sinus Pulseless elect...

View example

ACLS EXAM PREP B| 50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.49

What should be done to minimize interruptions in chest compressions during CPR? Continue CPR while the defibrillator is charging. which condition is an indication to stop or withhold resuscitative efforts? Safety threat to providers. After verifying the absence of a pulse, you initia...

View example

ACLS VERSION A |50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.

(1)
$14.99

you find an unresponsive patient who is not breathing. after activating the emergency response system, you determine that there is no pulse. what is your next action? start chest compressions at a rate of at least 100/min. you are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest pain. the blood press...

View example

AHA ACLS WRITTEN TEST |50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023

(1)
$14.49

1x sold

You find an unresponsive pt. who is not breathing. After activating the emergency response system, you determine there is no pulse. What is your next action? Start chest compressions of at least 100 per min. You are evaluating a 58 year old man with chest pain. The BP is 92/50 and a heart ra...

View example

ACLS 2020| 44 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.

(1)
$14.49

During post-cardiac arrest care, which is the recommended duration of targeted temperature management after reaching the correct temperature range? At least 24 hours You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT scan was normal, with no signs...

View example

ACLS CERTIFICATION EXAM QUIZ 2020 |53 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$12.99

ACLS CERTIFICATION EXAM QUIZ 2020 |53 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

View example

ACLS COMPLETE 2021| 327 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.99

BEST PLAYLIST I'VE FOUND FOR ALL HEART.ORG ACLS CODES! This is a good starting point for Jose (big Megacode at end): In which situation does bradycardia require treatment? Hypotension Which intervention is most appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole? Epinephrine ...

View example

FINAL EXAM ACLS| 48 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.49

A patient experiences cardiac arrest, and the resuscitation team initiates ventilations using a bag-valve-mask (BVM) resuscitator. The development of which condition during the provision of care would lead the team to suspect that improper BVM technique is being used? Select the correct answer to t...

View example

ACLS POST TEST (COPY) |45 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.99

You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT was normal with no sign of hemorrhage. The patient does not have any contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which treatment is best? a. start fibrinolytic therapy ASAP b. hold fibrinolytic therapy f...

View example

ACLS POST-TEST (2023) |50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

A 48-year-old man became unresponsive shortly after presenting to you with nausea and generalized chest discomfort. You observe gasping breathing and are unsure if you feel a pulse. You should know: A. Call for help and begin chest compressions. B. Wait until breathing stops and then check again f...

View example

ASHI CPR EXAM STUDY QUESTIONS 2023 |36 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$13.99

Sudden cardiac arrest in an adult is MOST LIKELY caused by Ventricular fibrillation The "chain of survival" is used: To describe the most effective approach for treating sudden cardiac arrest The links in the "chain of survival" in children is slightly different than for adults a...

View example

ACLS 2023| 23 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.49

Start CPR, beginning with? Compression rate? Where is hand placement? Compression depth? Chest compression. 100-120 compressions/minute. Mid-nipple line and lower half of breastbone. 2 inches to 2.4 inches depth What to do before approaching a patient? Start CPR after co...

View example

PALS UPDATED FINAL EXAM| 50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.49

A 12-year-old child being evaluated in the pediatric intensive care unit displays the following ECG waveform. The team interprets this as which arrhythmia? second degree Laboratory tests are ordered for a child who has been vomiting for 3 days and is diaphoretic, tachypneic, lethargic and ...

View example

BASIC LIFE SUPPORT EXAM B| 25 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.99

When performing CPR on an unresponsive choking victim what modification should you incorporate? Each time you open the airway look for the obstructing object Members of the team know their boundaries and ask for help before the resuscitation attempt worsens. Match this statement with the mos...

View example

AMERICAN RED CROSS - ADVANCED LIFE SUPPORT FINAL EXAM| 49 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$13.49

Ventricular Tachycardia A patient is being treated in the emergency department and is determined to have NSTE-ACS. Invasive management is planned based on which finding? - Ventricular Tachycardia - Atrial Fibrillation - Ventricular Fibrillation - Atrial Tachycardia On the lowe...

View example

RQI 2025 ACLS HEALTHCARE PROVIDER |29 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.49

Within the first 10 minutes, on the basis of the patient showing symptoms suggestive of myocardial ischemia, what will your first actions include (if not completed by EMS before arrival)? o Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) o Administer a blood thinner o Administer aspirin and establish IV...

View example

ADVANCED CARDIOVASCULAR LIFE SUPPORT |45 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$15.49

You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT was normal with no sign of hemorrhage. The patient does not have any contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which treatment is best? a. start fibrinolytic therapy ASAP b. hold fibrinolytic therapy f...

View example

ADVANCED LIFE SUPPORT| 38 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.49

ALS - early drugs - Adrenaline - dose and dilution? 1mg 10ml of 1:10,000 1ml of 1 in 1,000 ALS - early drugs - drug A for thrombolysis for suspected or proven cardiac arrest due to PE Tenecteplase 500 - 600 mcg/kg IV by bolus TeN CuT PLeaSe ALS - early drugs - adrenaline in sh...

View example

AMERICAN RED CROSS ADVANCED LIFE SUPPORT |243 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023 ALREADY GRADED A+

(1)
$15.49

1x sold

A concept that helps to promote effective and efficient teamwork and reduce the likelihood of errors is called _____. Crew resource management Which tasks are responsibilities of the team leader? Sets clear expectations Assigns Roles Facilitates a debriefing session When should...

View example

RED CROSS LIFEGUARDING ONLINE|40 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.99

As the only lifeguard performing CPR on a & year old child, you would perform cycles of: 30 chest compressions and 2 ventilations Which of the following would you identify as the universal sign that a conscious person is choking? Clutching the throat The patron asks, "Should we move...

View example

AMERICAN REDCROSS LIFEGUARD, RED CROSS LIFEGUARDING PRACTICE TEST |59 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$13.49

PPE Personal Protective Equipment FAST Face, Arm, Speech, Time EAP Emergency Action Plan AED Automated External Defibrillator SAMPLE 1. Signs/Symptoms 2. Allergies 3. Medications 4. Past History 5. Last Oral Intake 6. Events leading to injury/illness FIND...

View example

ADVANCED LIFE SUPPORT (ALS) ONLINE SESSION FINAL EXAM| 48 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.99

A patient's ECG reveals a narrow QRS complex with a regular rhythm, indicating a narrow-complex supraventricular tachyarrhythmia. The patient is hemodynamically stable. Which intervention would be initiated first? Vagal maneuvers For a patient who is hemodynamically stable and experiencing a na...

View example

AMERICAN RED CROSS BLS (BASIC LIFE SUPPORT) |21 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

While assessing an unresponsive adult who has been pulled from the water, you find that the patient has only occasional gasps, no definitive pulse and no severe life-threatening bleeding. Which of the following should you do next? Provide 2 ventilations and begin CPR An adult choking victim ...

View example

ALS (AMERICAN RED CROSS)| 25 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.99

A patient presents to the emergency department with signs and symptoms suggestive of ACS. The 12-lead ECG shows T-wave inversion of less than 2 mm. To which clinical category would you assign this patient? Which conditions contribute to the pathophysiology of ACS? 1. Development of an occlus...

View example

AMERICAN RED CROSS BASIC LIFE SUPPORT |100 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.99

You use critical thinking when you: Perform a rapid assessment and determine a course of action. Anticipate roles and functions as part of a team based on the patient's presentation and condition. Re-evaluate the situation for changes, interpret these changes and modify care accordingly. ...

View example

AMERICAN RED CROSS-PALS-FINAL EXAM |50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$13.99

A 12-year-old is being treated in the urgent care clinic. The mother reports that the child came home from school yesterday with a high fever, vomiting and multiple episodes of watery diarrhea. The healthcare provider obtains a rhythm strip and notes the following waveform. The provider interprets t...

View example

PALS FINAL RED CROSS |50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.

(1)
$15.49

A 4-month old infant is brought to the emergency department in cardiac arrest. Which condition would the team identify as the most common cause of cardiac arrest in an infant of this age? sudden infant death syndrome is the most common cause in infants younger than 6 months of age. The PALS ...

View example

LESSON 3BASIC LIFE SUPPORT FOR ADULTS |31 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$12.99

when to perform Basic Life Support for Adults? When the heart and normal breathing have stopped what actions are required after confirming the patient needs BLS? Basic life support (BLS) for a patient in cardiac arrest includes high-quality CPR and the use of an AED. BLS also includes the d...

View example

LESSON 4 BASIC LIFE SUPPORT FOR CHILDREN AND INFANTS 40 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.49

CPR/AED protocol infant someone under the age of 1 CPR/AED protocol child age of 1 to the onset of puberty as evidenced by breast development in girls and underarm hair development in boys (usually around the age of 12). BUT be careful because the AED pad varies by age and weight. CP...

View example

PEDIATRIC ADVANCED LIFE SUPPORT (PALS) |90 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.49

1 rescuer compression to breath ratio in pediatrics? 30:2 2 rescuer compression to breath ratio in pediatrics? 15:2 You need to provide rescue breaths to a child victim with a pulse. What is the appropriate rate for delivering breaths? A.) 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds B.) 2 breath...

View example

BLS CPR CERTIFICATION LESSON 1 FOUNDATIONAL CONCEPTS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

(1)
$12.99

critical thinking thinking clearly & rationally to identify the connection between information & actions problem solving the ability to use readily available resources to find solutions to challenging situations or issues that arise communication includes verbal messages & nonverbal...

View example

BLS CPR CERTIFICATION LESSON 1 FOUNDATIONAL CONCEPTS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

When editing a category list in Chronicles such as the Allergy Reaction category list, you may see the following message: "Release Range: All Customer Owned". Part I: What does this message indicate? Choose only ONE answer. A. This category list is a System list maintained by Epic and customer...

View example

KYLE EPIC CLN 251-252 EXAM PREP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.

(1)
$12.99

What record controls details within activities like the tabs in Chart Review, or the default report in Snapshot? Profiles If you wanted to know the record name of the Snapshot report, how could you find that out? Go to Session Information Report and click the link to Enable Report and Print...

View example

EPIC CLN 251 252 EXAM REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023

(1)
$14.99

Chronicles-like a filing cabinet Epic's database management system. Master files, INI Master files are like drawers Chronicles is divided into __________ like patient and diagnosis. Each has a three letter identifier called _________. 900 There are over ________ master files in Ep...

View example

CLN 251/252 Configuring the Epic End User Clinical/Shared (End of Chapter and eLearning questions and answers

(1)
$15.49

Which of the following is a no-add item? A.) Chief Complaint B.) Appointment time C.) Birth date D.) Marital Status C-Birth date Record Master file item Is a Folder Drawer Question What is Epic's database management system called Chronicles True or False: You...

View example

EPIC CLN251 525 – 2023 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.49

EPIC CLN251 525 – 2023 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

View example

CLN 251 252 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.49

CLN 251 252 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

View example

EPIC CLN 251/252 Study Set 3 - KW, EPIC CLN 251/252 Study Set 2 - KW, EPIC CLN 251/251 - KW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

Name two things that are defined by your role record. Roles define your default Startup Activity, the Hyperspace toolbar, options under the Epic button, the maximum number of workspaces a user can have open, automatic timeout settings, and whether your user's last login department will default the...

View example

CLN251-252 WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

(1)
$13.49

Masterfiles that are constantly modified are... "Dynamic" Masterfiles only updated by Administrators are... "Administrative" or "static" Examples of where reports are... Chart Review, SnapShot, Summary, to format InBasket messages, labels and prescriptions, for read-only secti...

View example

RPB 102 EPIC WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS.

(1)
$12.99

1x sold

to add a new insurance to the system that dose not exist select a generic coverage and enter information from the card when creating a new coverage record in the system you must choose the correct ( 2 answers) payer and plan true or false a patient can have more then one guarantor ac...

View example

EPIC CLN 250 REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.

(1)
$13.49

USER What record must be created in order for a person to log in to Epic? PROVIDER What record must be created for a person or resource that meets certain clinical criteria? SCHEDULABLE,CREDENTIALED, AUTHORIZES ORDERS REFERS TO/FROM What clinical criteria might be met for a user w...

View example

EPIC CLN 251/252 Sample Exam (This material contains confidential and copyrighted information of Epic Systems Corporation)

(1)
$14.99

When editing a category list in Chronicles such as the Allergy Reaction category list, you may see the following message: "Release Range: All Customer Owned". Part I: What does this message indicate? Choose only ONE answer. A. This category list is a System list maintained by Epic and customer...

View example

KYLE EPIC CLN 251-252 EXAM PREP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.99

What record controls details within activities like the tabs in Chart Review, or the default report in Snapshot? Profiles If you wanted to know the record name of the Snapshot report, how could you find that out? Go to Session Information Report and click the link to Enable Report and Print...

View example

CLN251 252 CONFIGURING THE EPIC END USER KEY TERMS AND DEFINITIONS

(1)
$13.49

CLN251 252 CONFIGURING THE EPIC END USER KEY TERMS AND DEFINITIONS

View example

CLN 251 252 CONFIGURING THE EPIC END USER-CLINICAL SHARED (COMMAND PAGE)

(1)
$13.49

CLN 251 252 CONFIGURING THE EPIC END USER-CLINICAL SHARED (COMMAND PAGE)

View example

WORKFLOW ENGINE RULES (EPIC CLN251 /252) WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

(1)
$15.49

Workflow Engine -impacts the configuration of the clinical workspace a user sees in Hyperspace -Linked to most specific profile to be considered by system -composed of conditions and directives (If, then statements) Directive "Then" Statement -tells the WE what to do if the rule matche...

View example

EPIC CLN 251/252 Sample Exam (This material contains confidential and copyrighted information of Epic Systems Corporation)

(1)
$15.49

When editing a category list in Chronicles such as the Allergy Reaction category list, you may see the following message: "Release Range: All Customer Owned". Part I: What does this message indicate? Choose only ONE answer. A. This category list is a System list maintained by Epic and customer...

View example

CLN 251 252 SECTION 6 WORKFLOW ENGINE RULES WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.49

A Workflow Engine Rule is a _______ in the ________ masterfile Record; LOR What four things does the WE control in a patient workspace? 1) Activity Tabs 2) More menu (formerly More Activities) 3) Navigators 4) Sidebars (when using widescreen) _______ can be configured be a real re...

View example

EPIC AMB400 - Sample Test, KAW - AMB 400, AMB 400, AMB400 Chapter, AMB400 Review questions, KAW - AMB 400 Reviewing The Chapter - Procedure Build, AMB 400 - Dynamic OCCs - Referrals, AMB 400 - Immunizations, Amb 400 - Preference Lists, AMB 400 QUESTIONS

(1)
$15.49

Your providers would like the question "Is the patient pregnant?" to appear when ordering an X-ray for female patients aged 12 or older. After the order-specific question has been created, how will you accomplish this request? (Choose only one answer.) A. Link the question to the X-Ray Default Se...

View example

CLN251 252 4 PROFILES CONFIGURE AN END USER'S OPTIONS WITHIN ACTIVITIES WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

(1)
$15.99

LPR in the INI for... Profile master file LPR linked to System Definitions Will affect any given user How many Profiles can work together to customize a user's experience? Up to 6 What master file is only used by Clinical applications? LPR - Profiles What are some ex...

View example

CLN 251/ 252 8 SECURITY CLASSES WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.49

True or False: Security classes can be shared True Assigning Security Class in____________ is an efficient way to grant access for ________ the template; a group of users INI for Security Class is... ECL ECL gives users access to ____________ Different Activities The ...

View example

CHRONICLES (EPIC CLN 251 252) WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+

(1)
$14.49

CHRONICLES (EPIC CLN 251 252) WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+

View example

CROSSFIT, CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 CERTIFICATION| 180 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$15.49

What is Crossfit? constantly varied, high-intensity, functional movement What is power? the time rate of doing work What is the most important characteristic of functional movement? Capacity to move large loads over long distance (high power producing) What are the characteri...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 CERTIFICATION| 730 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$18.99

What is crossfit Constantly varied functional movements executed at high intensity Constantly varied General physical preparedness (GPP) What is General Physical Preparedness Term used to describe the generalised base qualities of an athlete What's the aim of GPP To establi...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 CERTIFICATION |147 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$15.49

Definition of Crossfit constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement (also known as Crossfits prescription) What is functional movement load, distance, and speed for production of high power Define intensity power (intensity is the independent variable) Crossfit me...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 CERTIFICATION| 149 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$15.49

Definition of Crossfit constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement (also known as Crossfits prescription) What is functional movement load, distance, and speed for production of high power Define intensity power (intensity is the independent variable) Crossfit me...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 CERTIFICATE |149 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023

(1)
$14.99

Definition of Crossfit constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement (also known as Crossfits prescription) What is functional movement load, distance, and speed for production of high power Define intensity power (intensity is the independent variable) Crossfit me...

View example

CROSSIFT LEVEL 1 |162 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.

(1)
$13.99

Aim of Crossfit broad, general and inclusive fitness Prescription constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement Functional movement load, distance and speed Diet lays the molecular foundations for fitness and health. Metabolic Conditioning builds capacity in...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1| 47 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$12.99

Cardiovascular/respiratory endurance The ability of the body to gather, process & deliver oxygen Stamina The ability of the body to process, deliver, store, & utilize energy. Strength The ability of a muscular unit, or combination of muscular units to apply force. Flexibility...

View example

CROSSFIT, CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 CERTIFICATION |180 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.

(1)
$13.99

What is Crossfit? constantly varied, high-intensity, functional movement What is power? the time rate of doing work What is the most important characteristic of functional movement? Capacity to move large loads over long distance (high power producing) What are the characteri...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 CERTIFICATION |730 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS 2023.

(1)
$14.99

What is crossfit Constantly varied functional movements executed at high intensity Constantly varied General physical preparedness (GPP) What is General Physical Preparedness Term used to describe the generalised base qualities of an athlete What's the aim of GPP To establi...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 CERTIFICATION |149 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

(1)
$13.99

Definition of Crossfit constantly varied, high intensity, functional movement (also known as Crossfits prescription) What is functional movement load, distance, and speed for production of high power Define intensity power (intensity is the independent variable) Crossfit me...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 HANDBOOK |258 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.99

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 HANDBOOK |258 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 REVIEW |91 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

Gymnastics modality Body weight improve body control, neurological components: coordination,balance, agility, Weight lifting modality Olympic lifts, increase strength, power, hip/leg capacity Metabolic conditioning Row, bike, jump, bike Task priority days 2 modality days, se...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 TRAINER TEST |139 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.49

Define CrossFit constantly varied functional movement executed at high intensity. Characteristics of Functional Movements: 1. Natural 2. UMRP: Universal motor recruitment pattern. (found everywhere) 3. Essential: for quality of life, living independently, to do everyday things. 4. Safe ...

View example

CROSSFIT ONLINE LEVEL 1 |153 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023.

(1)
$13.99

CrossFit Definition Constantly varied functional movements executed at high intensity base of CrossFit program is functional movements on a regular basis CF defines its terms bc understanding them is the utilitiy for effective training giving clear definitions helps to dispe...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 EXAM |58 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.49

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 EXAM |58 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS.

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 – 130| 133 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.49

Define CrossFit Constantly varied high intensity functional movement Define Variance Preparation for random physical challenges unknown and knowable Define General Physical Preparedness (GPP) and identify the relationship of variance to GPP GPP is broad, general and inclusive and va...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 TRAINER GUIDE |126 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.99

Aims of Crossfit Crossfit has been to forge a broad, general, and inclusive fitness. Prepare trainees for any physical contingency-prepare them not only the unknown but for the unknowable. Prescription of Crossfit Crossfit is: "Constantly vaired, High-intensity, functional movement." This...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 ADDITIONAL TERMS AND DEFINITIONS

(1)
$13.49

Rhabdomyolysis *Medical condition that may arise from the breakdown of muscle cells contents in to the bloodstream. *develops from high intensity or high volume exercise or any other process that damages muscles. Symptoms of Rhabdomyolysis Generalized muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, abdomin...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 – PROGRAMMING WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS.

(1)
$12.49

Single element day : improvement of the _____ and not on total _____ effect element, metabolic Two-element day : "____-priority" because it is set and the time varies. ___ - ____ interval management is critical. task, work, rest Three-element days : "____-priority" because the at...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 – NUTRITION QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$13.49

_____ is a hormone produced by the pancreas, and you cannot live without it Insulin _____ is responsible for storage of energy in cells Insulin Your insulin level would be too high if you eat too much _____ carbohydrate Zone block prescription = ____ x _____/7 (g of protein) ...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 - NINE FOUNDATION MOVEMENTS| 53 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

(1)
$15.49

Air squats: - _____ (hip or shoulder) - width stance - ____ descend back and down - ____ curve maintained - Knees in line with _____ - Hips descend lower than _____ - _____ down - Complete at full ___ and knee extension Shoulder, hips, lumbar, toes, knees, heels, hip Air squat fault :...

View example

CROSSFIT, CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 CERTIFICATION WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS.

(1)
$13.99

What is Crossfit? constantly varied, high-intensity, functional movement What is power? the time rate of doing work What is the most important characteristic of functional movement? Capacity to move large loads over long distance (high power producing) What are the characteri...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 - 08 NUTRITION |58 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.49

What is the purpose of nutrition? Nutrition provides the fuel and raw materials for all life's processes (i.e., metabolism). What year did CrossFit Journal publish, "The Theoretical of the development of an Athlete"? The year 2002 What is "The Theoretical of the development of an...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 RESPONSIBLE TRAINING WITH CORRECT ANSWERS

(1)
$14.99

Rhabdomyolysis is a medical condition that might arise from breakdown of _____ _____ and release of the muscle cells' contents into the blood stream muscle tissue Rhabdomyolysis can damage the _____ and can lead to ____ failure or death kidneys, renal Rhabdomyolysis is diagnosed whe...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 ( TECHNIQUE) WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.99

Define Technique The movements the athlete completes to accomplish the task Articulate how technique confers safety, efficacy, and efficiency technique ensures reslts that are measuable, observable, and repeatable Explain the relationship of coordination, accuracy, agility, and balan...

View example

CROSSFIT LEVEL 1 SET A |103 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.

(1)
$14.99

Define CrossFit? Constantly varied, high-intensity, functional movement Characteristics of Functional Movements Natural Universal Recruitment patterns Essential Safe Compound yet irreducible Core to extremity High power producing What is the most important characteristic of fun...

View example
Show all
avatar-seller
BRAINBOOSTERS

The benefits of buying summaries with Stuvia:

Guaranteed quality through customer reviews

Guaranteed quality through customer reviews

Stuvia customers have reviewed more than 700,000 summaries. This how you know that you are buying the best documents.

Quick and easy check-out

Quick and easy check-out

You can quickly pay through credit card or Stuvia-credit for the summaries. There is no membership needed.

Focus on what matters

Focus on what matters

Your fellow students write the study notes themselves, which is why the documents are always reliable and up-to-date. This ensures you quickly get to the core!

Frequently asked questions

What do I get when I buy this document?

You get a PDF, available immediately after your purchase. The purchased document is accessible anytime, anywhere and indefinitely through your profile.

Satisfaction guarantee: how does it work?

Our satisfaction guarantee ensures that you always find a study document that suits you well. You fill out a form, and our customer service team takes care of the rest.

Who am I buying these notes from?

Stuvia is a marketplace, so you are not buying this document from us, but from seller BRAINBOOSTERS. Stuvia facilitates payment to the seller.

Will I be stuck with a subscription?

No, you only buy these notes for $70.99. You're not tied to anything after your purchase.

Can Stuvia be trusted?

4.6 stars on Google & Trustpilot (+1000 reviews)

83637 documents were sold in the last 30 days

Founded in 2010, the go-to place to buy study notes for 14 years now

Start selling
$3,089.42 $70.99  1x  sold
  • (0)
  Add to cart