Turners syndrome - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries
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NRNP 6675 Final Exam % Correct Answers
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NRNP 6675 Final Exam % Correct Answers 
Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? Select all that apply 
Rapid dose escalation; parental route of administration; higher potency typical antipsychotics 
 
 
Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as? 
B) Gender Discordance 
 
 
Antipsychotic medication provides D2 blockage in the meso-coritcal pathway causing which of the following effects? 
B) Increases EPS 
 
Incorrect: reduces negative s/s, cause...
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NRNP 6675 Midterm Exam 2024 to 2026 update graded A+
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Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as? - B) Gender 
Discordance 
 
Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? Select all that apply - Rapid dose escalation; parental route of administration; higher potency typical antipsychotics 
 
Antipsychotic medication provides D2 blockage in the meso-coritcal pathway causing which of the following effects? - B) Increases EPS 
 
Incorrect: reduces negative s/s, causes prolactinemia, reduces positive sympto...
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WGU D027 Practice Test Questions and answers, rated A+. verified.
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WGU D027 Practice Test Questions and 
answers, rated A+. verified. 
A patient has endured several dosage adjustments of his tricyclic antidepressant, so the provider 
recommends genetic testing. Which statement correctly describes the rationale for genetic testing? 
a. The CYP2D6 gene influences metabolism of tricyclic antidepressants and certain other drugs. 
b. The HER2 gene is a tumor marker that impacts metabolism of tricyclic antidepressants. 
c. The BRCA2 gene influences metabolism of ce...
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NRNP 6675 Final Exam Review Questions and answers, rated A+/ VERIFIED/[LATEST EXAM UPDATES]
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NRNP 6675 Final Exam Review 
Questions and answers, rated A+/ 
VERIFIED/ 
Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? Select all that apply 
Rapid dose escalation; parental route of administration; higher potency typical antipsychotics 
Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as? 
B) Gender Discordance 
Antipsychotic medication provides D2 blockage in the meso-coritcal pathway causing which of the 
following effects? 
B) Increases EPS 
Incorrect:...
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Exam 1: NSG500/ NSG 500 (Latest 2024/ 2025) Advanced Health Assessment Exam Review| Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A
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Exam 1: NSG500/ NSG 500 (Latest 2024/ 2025) Advanced Health Assessment Exam Review| Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A 
 
 
Q: What are examples of cognitive impairment findings in a patient? 
 
Answer: 
 Inap- propriate laughing, flat affect, disheveled appearance, and communication may be altered 
 
 
Q: Different parts of the brain and what they activate; Parietal = 	 
Temporal = 		 Frontal = 	 
Cerebral = 
 
Answer: 
 Parietal = sensation 
Temporal = au...
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PNCB Cardiac Practice Study Questions.
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PNCB Cardiac Practice Study Questions.CHD causes - correct answer mostly unknown 
chromosomal abnormalities (Down syndrome, Turner's, DiGeorge) 
Maternal DM, SLE, Rubella 
 
Most common CHD - correct answer VSD (25%-30% of all lesions) 
 
Signs and symptoms of a CHD - correct answer increased respirations and effort at rest or with activity (feeding) 
Poor feeding, fatigue during feeding 
Excessive sweating 
recurrent respiratory infections 
May have cyanosis 
Poor Perfusion (Cool extremeties) ...
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ITLS FINAL EXAM Questions and Answers Latest Updated 2024/2025 | 100% Correct | Verified
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ITLS FINAL EXAM Questions and Answers Latest Updated 2024/2025 | 100% Correct | Verified. what are trauma injuries involved with hitting chest on a steering wheel - ANSWER 
pulmonary contusion, pneumothorax, pericardial fusion, flail chest, cardiac tamponade 
rapid trauma survey - ANSWER head and neck 
chest 
breath sounds 
abdomen 
pelvis 
lower and upper extremities 
obvious swelling and deforming 
posterior 
vital signs 
pupils 
GCS 
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score - ANSWER Eyes 4 
Verbal 5 
M...
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PNCB Cardiac exam 2023 with 100% correct answers
- Exam (elaborations) • 16 pages • 2023
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CHD causes - correct answer mostly unknown 
chromosomal abnormalities (Down syndrome, Turner's, DiGeorge) 
Maternal DM, SLE, Rubella 
 
Most common CHD - correct answer VSD (25%-30% of all lesions) 
 
Signs and symptoms of a CHD - correct answer increased respirations and effort at rest or with activity (feeding) 
Poor feeding, fatigue during feeding 
Excessive sweating 
recurrent respiratory infections 
May have cyanosis 
Poor Perfusion (Cool extremeties) 
 
Signs of coarctation of the aort...
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NRNP 6675 Midterm ExamQuestions with 100% verified answers
- Exam (elaborations) • 107 pages • 2024
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Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as? - B) Gender 
Discordance 
 
Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? Select all that apply - Rapid dose escalation; parental route of administration; higher potency typical antipsychotics 
 
Antipsychotic medication provides D2 blockage in the meso-coritcal pathway causing which of the following effects? - B) Increases EPS 
 
Incorrect: reduces negative s/s, causes prolactinemia, reduces positive sympto...
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Reproductive PANCE/PANRE SmartyPance exam 2024/2025 with 100% correct answers
- Exam (elaborations) • 5 pages • 2024
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What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea? Pregnancy 
 
What are the two most common causes of secondary amenorrhea in patients with normal estrogen? Asherman syndrome and polycystic ovarian syndrome 
 
What is another name for gonadal dysgenesis? Turners syndrome 
 
What lab test is diagnostic for menopause? FSH > 30mIU/mL 
 
What is the most common presentation of a leiomyomata (uterine fibroid)? Vaginal bleeding 
 
What is recommended in most cases of a leiomyomata? Observation...
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