Undisputed Pundit

Which of the following best defines a "false positive" in security monitoring? • A) A legitimate threat that is identified as benign • B) An alert indicating a threat that does not exist • C) A successful breach of security • Answer: B) An alert indicating a threat that does not exist • Explanation: A false positive occurs when a security system incorrectly identifies benign activity as malicious, leading to unnecessary investigations.

CompTIA CASP+ Security Engineering Tests with 100% Correct answers

What is the main purpose of Secure Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) in security engineering? • A) Increase project duration • B) Incorporate security practices at each phase of development • C) Improve software performance • Answer: B) Incorporate security practices at each phase of development • Explanation: SDLC helps integrate security considerations early, reducing vulnerabilities before deployment.

What is the primary purpose of implementing layered security in an organization? • A) To improve network performance • B) To create multiple defenses against potential threats • C) To reduce the number of security devices • Answer: B) To create multiple defenses against potential threats • Explanation: Layered security (or defense in depth) involves using multiple security measures to provide redundancy, making it harder for attackers to compromise systems.

What is the primary purpose of encryption in data storage? • A) Increase data accessibility • B) Ensure data confidentiality • C) Improve data processing speed • Answer: B) Ensure data confidentiality • Explanation: Encryption protects stored data by making it unreadable to unauthorized users, ensuring confidentiality.

What is the main purpose of performing a risk assessment in security engineering? • A) To reduce software licensing costs • B) To identify and mitigate potential threats • C) To increase system efficiency • Answer: B) To identify and mitigate potential threats • Explanation: A risk assessment helps identify vulnerabilities and threats, allowing organizations to implement measures to mitigate potential risks.

What is the primary benefit of conducting a penetration test on an application? • A) To identify potential vulnerabilities • B) To increase application speed • C) To assess user experience • Answer: A) To identify potential vulnerabilities • Explanation: Penetration testing simulates attacks to identify security weaknesses before they can be exploited.

CompTIA CASP+ Cloud Security Tests with 100% Correct answers

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using cloud services? • A) Fixed costs • B) Scalability and flexibility • C) Complete control over hardware • Answer: B) Scalability and flexibility • Explanation: Cloud services allow organizations to scale resources up or down as needed, providing flexibility to meet varying demands.

What is the primary function of a Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) tool? • A) To encrypt data in transit • B) To provide visibility and compliance monitoring for cloud environments • C) To backup data in the cloud • Answer: B) To provide visibility and compliance monitoring for cloud environments • Explanation: CSPM tools help organizations assess their cloud security configurations, ensuring compliance with security policies and regulations.