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NURS 6635 PSYCOPATHERAPY PART TWO
Question 3 
What is the recommended duration of treatment with psychopharmacology of panic disorder 
once treatment becomes effective? 
A. 4-6 weeks 
B. 1-2 months 
C. 3-7 months 
D. 8-12 months 
Question 4 
Select age after which encopresis may be correctly diagnosed. 
A. 2 
B. 3 
C. 4 
D. 6 
Question 5 
Select the antidepressant drug that is most likely to cause death when taken in an overdose. 
A. Fluoxetine 
B. Mirtazapine 
C. Imipramine 
D. Trazodone
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 26 pages •
Question 3 
What is the recommended duration of treatment with psychopharmacology of panic disorder 
once treatment becomes effective? 
A. 4-6 weeks 
B. 1-2 months 
C. 3-7 months 
D. 8-12 months 
Question 4 
Select age after which encopresis may be correctly diagnosed. 
A. 2 
B. 3 
C. 4 
D. 6 
Question 5 
Select the antidepressant drug that is most likely to cause death when taken in an overdose. 
A. Fluoxetine 
B. Mirtazapine 
C. Imipramine 
D. Trazodone
MIDTERM EXAM PATHO| NURS MISC
MIDTERM EXAM PATHO| NURS MISC 
 
1 
1. 7. What organic compound facilitates transportation across cell membranes by acting as receptors, 
transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps? 
a. Lipids c. Proteins 
b. Proteases d. Carbohydrates 
 
2. 17. Under anaerobic conditions, what process provides energy for the cell? 
a. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Lactolysis 
b. Glycolysis d. Passive transport 
 
2 
3. 13. During cell injury caused by hypoxia, an increase in the osmot...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 20 pages •
MIDTERM EXAM PATHO| NURS MISC 
 
1 
1. 7. What organic compound facilitates transportation across cell membranes by acting as receptors, 
transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps? 
a. Lipids c. Proteins 
b. Proteases d. Carbohydrates 
 
2. 17. Under anaerobic conditions, what process provides energy for the cell? 
a. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Lactolysis 
b. Glycolysis d. Passive transport 
 
2 
3. 13. During cell injury caused by hypoxia, an increase in the osmot...
NSG 6001 Week 1 to week 5 Knowledge Check
NSG 6001 Week 1 to week 5 Knowledge Check 
 
Week 1 KC – 100% ANP1 
 
1. Which of the following best describes the objective portion of a SOAP note? 
The patient’s physical exam and testing results 
 
2) A 50-year-old female patient has a blood pressure of 118/72 mmHg, a negative family history 
for breast and ovarian cancer, a normal PAP smear 2 years prior, and a Framingham Risk 
screening in within normal limits. Which should be part of this patient’s routine annual well- 
patient exams...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 6 pages •
NSG 6001 Week 1 to week 5 Knowledge Check 
 
Week 1 KC – 100% ANP1 
 
1. Which of the following best describes the objective portion of a SOAP note? 
The patient’s physical exam and testing results 
 
2) A 50-year-old female patient has a blood pressure of 118/72 mmHg, a negative family history 
for breast and ovarian cancer, a normal PAP smear 2 years prior, and a Framingham Risk 
screening in within normal limits. Which should be part of this patient’s routine annual well- 
patient exams...
NRNP 6566 week 1 to 5 Key Concepts.
NRNP 6566 week 1 to 5 Key Concepts. 
 
NRNP 6566 
Key Concepts Week 1 to 5 
 
Week 1 
1. Describe the cytochrome P450 system. Describe how inducers and inhibitors affect the 
cytochrome system and how that affects the half-life of medications. 
a. Cytochrome p450 system is a series of enzymes used to metabolize medications. 
b. Drugs that cause CYP450 metabolic drug interactions are referred to as either inhibitors 
or inducers. Inducers increase CYP450 enzyme activity by increasing enzyme 
synt...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 38 pages •
NRNP 6566 week 1 to 5 Key Concepts. 
 
NRNP 6566 
Key Concepts Week 1 to 5 
 
Week 1 
1. Describe the cytochrome P450 system. Describe how inducers and inhibitors affect the 
cytochrome system and how that affects the half-life of medications. 
a. Cytochrome p450 system is a series of enzymes used to metabolize medications. 
b. Drugs that cause CYP450 metabolic drug interactions are referred to as either inhibitors 
or inducers. Inducers increase CYP450 enzyme activity by increasing enzyme 
synt...
NRNP-6552Review Test Submission: Quiz - Module 2 Knowledge Check |all correct answers|
NRNP-6552Review Test Submission: 
Quiz - Module 2 Knowledge Check 
|all correct answers| 
 
Question 11 out of 1 points 
What is the term for the absence of menses for 3 to 6 months in a woman who has previously 
menstruated and is not pregnant, breastfeeding, or menopausal? 
Selected Answer: 
Answers: 
 
Secondary amenorrhea 
Primary amenorrhea 
Initial dysmenorrhea 
 
This study source was downloaded by from CSoeucrsoeHaomn 0e4n-1o7r-2r0h2e2a12:18:52 GMT -05:00 
 
Glenn Gorleski 
 
MY HOME PA...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 8 pages •
NRNP-6552Review Test Submission: 
Quiz - Module 2 Knowledge Check 
|all correct answers| 
 
Question 11 out of 1 points 
What is the term for the absence of menses for 3 to 6 months in a woman who has previously 
menstruated and is not pregnant, breastfeeding, or menopausal? 
Selected Answer: 
Answers: 
 
Secondary amenorrhea 
Primary amenorrhea 
Initial dysmenorrhea 
 
This study source was downloaded by from CSoeucrsoeHaomn 0e4n-1o7r-2r0h2e2a12:18:52 GMT -05:00 
 
Glenn Gorleski 
 
MY HOME PA...
NRNP-6568 Quiz - Week 1 Knowledge Check 2022
NRNP-6568 Quiz - Week 1 
Knowledge Check 2022 
 
Course NRNP-6568-16-Syn Adv Nurs Pr Patient Family-2022-Spring-QTR- Term-wks-1- 
 
thru-11-(02/28/2022-05/15/2022)-PT27 
Test Quiz - Week 1 Knowledge Check 
Started 3/6/22 9:24 PM 
Submitted 3/6/22 9:30 PM 
Due Date 3/7/22 1:59 AM 
Status Completed 
Attempt 
Score 
Time 
Elapsed 
 
10 out of 10 points 
5 minutes 
QUESTION 1 
 
1. An NP must have a DNP to prescribe controlled 
substances. True or False? 
 
1 points 
 
QUESTION 2 
 
Nurse Anesthetis...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 4 pages •
NRNP-6568 Quiz - Week 1 
Knowledge Check 2022 
 
Course NRNP-6568-16-Syn Adv Nurs Pr Patient Family-2022-Spring-QTR- Term-wks-1- 
 
thru-11-(02/28/2022-05/15/2022)-PT27 
Test Quiz - Week 1 Knowledge Check 
Started 3/6/22 9:24 PM 
Submitted 3/6/22 9:30 PM 
Due Date 3/7/22 1:59 AM 
Status Completed 
Attempt 
Score 
Time 
Elapsed 
 
10 out of 10 points 
5 minutes 
QUESTION 1 
 
1. An NP must have a DNP to prescribe controlled 
substances. True or False? 
 
1 points 
 
QUESTION 2 
 
Nurse Anesthetis...
OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 26: Nervous System Infections
OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 26: Nervous 
System Infections 
* = Correct answer 
Multiple Choice 
1. Which of the following is the innermost membrane surrounding the brain? 
A. arachnoid mater 
B. dura mater 
C. pia mater* 
D. ventricle mater 
Difficulty: Easy 
ASM Standard: N/A 
2. Which term describes tingling or numbness in peripheral nerves? 
A. neuralgia 
B. neurological deficit 
C. neuropathy* 
D. neurotaxis 
Difficulty: Easy 
ASM Standard: N/A 
 
TESTBANKSELLER.COM 
3. Which pa...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 19 pages •
OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 26: Nervous 
System Infections 
* = Correct answer 
Multiple Choice 
1. Which of the following is the innermost membrane surrounding the brain? 
A. arachnoid mater 
B. dura mater 
C. pia mater* 
D. ventricle mater 
Difficulty: Easy 
ASM Standard: N/A 
2. Which term describes tingling or numbness in peripheral nerves? 
A. neuralgia 
B. neurological deficit 
C. neuropathy* 
D. neurotaxis 
Difficulty: Easy 
ASM Standard: N/A 
 
TESTBANKSELLER.COM 
3. Which pa...
OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 25: Circulatory and Lymphatic System Infections
OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank 
 
Chapter 25: Circulatory and Lymphatic System 
Infections 
 
* = Correct answer 
Multiple Choice 
1. Where does oxygenated blood enter the heart? 
A. the left atrium* 
B. the left ventricle 
C. the right atrium 
D. the right ventricle 
Difficulty: Easy 
ASM Standard: N/A 
2. Which artery carries deoxygenated blood? 
A. aorta 
B. femoral 
C. pulmonary* 
D. subclavian 
Difficulty: Easy 
ASM Standard: N/A 
 
TESTBANKSELLER.COM 
3. Which of the following is an infec...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 18 pages •
OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank 
 
Chapter 25: Circulatory and Lymphatic System 
Infections 
 
* = Correct answer 
Multiple Choice 
1. Where does oxygenated blood enter the heart? 
A. the left atrium* 
B. the left ventricle 
C. the right atrium 
D. the right ventricle 
Difficulty: Easy 
ASM Standard: N/A 
2. Which artery carries deoxygenated blood? 
A. aorta 
B. femoral 
C. pulmonary* 
D. subclavian 
Difficulty: Easy 
ASM Standard: N/A 
 
TESTBANKSELLER.COM 
3. Which of the following is an infec...
OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 24: Digestive System Infections
OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 
24: Digestive System Infections 
 
* = Correct answer 
Multiple Choice 
1. What is the pharynx? 
A. an accessory digestive organ 
B. part of the gastrointestinal tract* 
C. part of the mouth 
D. the exit of the gastrointestinal tract 
Difficulty: Easy 
ASM Standard: N/A 
2. What type of digestion occurs in the mouth? 
A. chemical breakdown of food only 
B. physical breakdown of food only 
C. chemical and physical breakdown of food* 
D. neither chemical no...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 17 pages •
OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 
24: Digestive System Infections 
 
* = Correct answer 
Multiple Choice 
1. What is the pharynx? 
A. an accessory digestive organ 
B. part of the gastrointestinal tract* 
C. part of the mouth 
D. the exit of the gastrointestinal tract 
Difficulty: Easy 
ASM Standard: N/A 
2. What type of digestion occurs in the mouth? 
A. chemical breakdown of food only 
B. physical breakdown of food only 
C. chemical and physical breakdown of food* 
D. neither chemical no...
OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 23: Urogenital System Infections
OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 23: Urogenital 
System Infections 
* = Correct answer 
Multiple Choice 
1. What is a glomerulus? 
A. a capillary bed that contacts a nephron* 
B. a connecting duct in the urinary system 
C. a part of the urinary bladder 
D. the part of the nephron that drains into the ureter 
Difficulty: Easy 
ASM Standard: N/A 
2. Urine leaves the urinary bladder through which structure? 
A. collecting duct 
B. meatus 
C. ureter 
D. urethra* 
Difficulty: Easy 
ASM Standar...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 16 pages •
OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 23: Urogenital 
System Infections 
* = Correct answer 
Multiple Choice 
1. What is a glomerulus? 
A. a capillary bed that contacts a nephron* 
B. a connecting duct in the urinary system 
C. a part of the urinary bladder 
D. the part of the nephron that drains into the ureter 
Difficulty: Easy 
ASM Standard: N/A 
2. Urine leaves the urinary bladder through which structure? 
A. collecting duct 
B. meatus 
C. ureter 
D. urethra* 
Difficulty: Easy 
ASM Standar...