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Salesforce Development Lifecycle & Deployment Designer Actual Certification Final Exam 2024

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How is the F Migration tool different than change sets? - CORRECT ANSWER-The F Migration Tool allows you to migrate metadata between unrelated organizations, so in that sense it's more powerful than change sets. Unlike the F IDE, the F Migration Tool has no graphical user interface. You choose the components you want to deploy, the server address, and other deployment details by editing control files in a text editor and using command-line arguments. What is the Production Typical De...

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Salesforce Development Lifecycle and Deployment Key concept 2024 Complete Questions and Solutions

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What method(s) can be used to develop in one environment and deploy to multiple related Prod environments? Sandbox and change sets Sandbox and managed package Dev Edition org and managed package Dev Edition org and unmanaged package - CORRECT ANSWER-Dev Edition org and managed package Dev Edition org and unmanaged package A sandbox is built from Prod, so anything in a sandbox can only be deployed to that Prod and not some other Prod. Managed packages cannot be built in sandboxes. I ...

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Salesforce Development Lifecycle and Deployment Designer Certification Study Guide Exam 2024 with Verified Answers

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Center of Excellence (CoE) - CORRECT ANSWER-A few stakeholders from different functional groups work together to ensure that changes support business goals and follow IT best practices and processes. Release Management Team - CORRECT ANSWER-Responsible for planning, scheduling, and controlling the build, in addition to testing and deploying Releases Governance Framework - CORRECT ANSWER-Improves coordination by ensuring all members of your team are working together to achieve project d...

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Salesforce Development Lifecycle and Deployment Designer Certification 2024

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Center of Excellence (CoE) - CORRECT ANSWER-A few stakeholders from different functional groups work together to ensure that changes support business goals and follow IT best practices and processes. Release Management Team - CORRECT ANSWER-Responsible for planning, scheduling, and controlling the build, in addition to testing and deploying Releases Governance Framework - CORRECT ANSWER-Improves coordination by ensuring all members of your team are working together to achieve project d...

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Salesforce Certified Business Analyst Exam Practice Test 2024 Q&A

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Northern Trail Outfitters (NTO) has acquired a competitor. The agreement is to migrate the acquired company into NTG's Technological Platforms. One of its challenges is to offer a unified customer experience while strengthening the relationship with its customers. The business analyst (BA) has been asked to translate the business objectives and assemble an improved and standard customer experience. Which strategy should the BA use to accomplish the goal? A. Understand business objec...

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SABALAUSKI Air Assault School Phase 1 Final test exam

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How many blades does a OH 58 have? - CORRECT ANSWER-4 Main, 2 tail What does FFAR stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER-Folding Fin Air Rocket How many FFAR does the AH-64 have? - CORRECT ANSWER-76 What is the cruising speed of the AH-64D Longbow? - CORRECT ANSWER-130 KTS What is the ACL of the UH-60 A/L/M - CORRECT ANSWER-With Seats 11 Without Seats 20 What is the external lift capacity for the UH 60 A, L, and M - CORRECT ANSWER-A8000 L-9000 M-9000 How many cargo hooks does the CH-47 have? - CO...

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SABALAUSKI AIR ASSAULT PHASE 1 TEST 2024

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What is the primary mission of thr AH-64D? - CORRECT ANSWER-Anti Armor What is the maximum speed of the AH-64A? - CORRECT ANSWER-140-145 Knots What is the first step in establishing a PZ/LZ? - CORRECT ANSWER-Selection Name one capability of an air assault operation? - CORRECT ANSWER-Attack enemy position from any direction What size landing point does AH-64 require? - CORRECT ANSWER-Size 3, 50 meters How do you approach the CH-47? - CORRECT ANSWER-45 degrees from the rear Name the crew f...

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RQI 2025 ACLS Healthcare Provider Exam and Answers 100% Correct

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Within the first 10 minutes, on the basis of the patient showing symptoms suggestive of myocardial ischemia, what will your first actions include (if not completed by EMS before arrival)? o Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) o Administer a blood thinner o Administer aspirin and establish IV access o Activate the ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) team o If SPO2 is less than 90%, start oxygen o Assess airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) o Administer epinephr...

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RQI 2025 ACLS for Healthcare Providers Exam Q&A

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How would you know that a rescue breath for a victim of any age is effective? - CORRECT ANSWER-You should see their chest rise. A child has a heart rate greater than 60 per minute and a pulse, but has ineffective breathing or is not breathing, what should the rescuer do? - CORRECT ANSWER-Give rescue breaths. (every 3-5 seconds) What ventilation device/ technique is not recommended for a single rescuer to provide breaths during CPR? - CORRECT ANSWER-The bag-mask ventilation technique. W...

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RQI 2025 ACLS CERT Exam latest and updated Questions and Answers

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What can increase a victim's chance of survival? - CORRECT ANSWER-Receiving early compressions and early AED While performing high-quality CPR on an adult, what action should you ensure is being accomplished? - CORRECT ANSWER-Compressing to a depth of at least 2 inches What is the best way to maintain a seal when you are a single rescuer using a bagmask device? - CORRECT ANSWER-Position your fingers by using the E-C clamp technique How can rescuers ensure that they are providing effec...

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