If is an acute - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries

Test Bank for Primary Care: Interprofessional Collaborative Practice 6th Edition by Buttaro. All Chapters 1- 228 Questions And Answers in 260 Pages. All Answers Are Correct. Primary Care : A Collaborative Practice, 6th Edition Terry Buttaro, JoAnn Trybulski, Patricia Polgar-Bailey Joanne Sandberg-Cook Chapter 1: The Evolving Landscape of Collaborative Practice Test Bank Multiple Choice 1. Which assessments of care providers are performed as part of the Value Based Purchasing initiative? Select a...

Rasmussen College MDC 3 FINAL Exam | 100% Correct Answers | Latest 2024 Version 1. The nurse is arriving at the beginning of her shift and has taken report on four clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse see first? A. A client with hypertension with a blood pressure of 172/92 mm Hg. B. A client with pain that is two days postoperative from a prostatectomy. C. A client ready for discharge education after treatment of an acute kidney injury. D. A client with a histo...

Exam 2: NSG533 / NSG 533 (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update) Advanced Pharmacology Exam Review | Complete Guide with Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes Q: How does Tramadol work? Answer: It is a centrally acting synthetic opioid with weak SSRI/SNRI activity. Q: What are the daily dose limits for Tramadol? Answer: Maximum of 200mg per day. Q: What are the potential interactions of Tramadol? Answer: Increased risk of seizures with TCAs and other SSRIs, risk for serotonin syndrome. Q: W...

Exam 1: NSG552 / NSG 552 (Latest 2024 / 2025) Psychopharmacology Exam | Grade A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes Q: Involuntary teeth grinding associated with antipsychotics: Answer: bruxism Q: Safest and best tolerated anticonvulsant for patients taking clozapine who experience dose related seizures: Answer: topiramate Q: Less incidence of antiadrenergic, anticholinergic and antihistaminic side effects but greater E.P.S.: Answer: high potency Q: Greater incidence of antiad...

Final Exam: NUR571 / NUR 571 Complete Review (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update) Complex Diagnosis and Management in Acute Care Practicum |Questions and Verified Answers |100% Correct – Chamberlain Question: A DNR order is signed and a patient has an implantable device. What should be the next step? Answer: implantable cardiac devices: -continuous pacing by a PPM or AICD -uses an LVAD these devices should be deactivated If a DNR order is signed or if a withdrawal of LST is desired by the pat...

Final Exam: NR570/ NR 570 (Latest 2023/ 2024 Update) Common Diagnosis & Management in Acute Care Practicum Review| Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct- Chamberlain Q: Where is the stone located if the patient has pain in the groin region? Answer: pain that radiates downward into the groin indicates the stone has passed into the lower third of the ureter Q: Vague flank pain or acute colicky pain with increasing intensity means the stone is located where? Answer: s...

Exam 1: NSG533 / NSG 533 (Latest 2024 / 2025) Advanced Pharmacology Complete Review | Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Wilkes Q: Histamine-2 Receptor Antagonists (cimetidine, famotidine, nizatidine, ranitidine) Answer: Decrease acid secretion by blocking histamine receptors in gastric parietal cells Relief from typical acute GERD symptoms and prophylactic More effective than antacids for chronic GERD but less effective than PPIs May be dosed intermittently or on schedule...

Final Exam: NR569/ NR 569 (Latest 2023/ 2024 Update) Differential Diagnosis in Acute Care Practicum Exam Review| 100% Correct- Chamberlain Q: How is acute otitis media diagnosed? Answer: clinical presentation objective findings on physical exam (otoscopy) combined with the patient's history and presenting signs and symptoms Q: Management of acute otitis media Answer: -the goal of treatment is to control pain and to treat the infectious process with antibiotics -Adults w...

Exam 3: NSG 121 / NSG121 (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update) Health Assessment Review | Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Herzing Q: T/F: During increase activity an elderly person is likely to experience elevated heart rate, bounding pulse, and shortness of breath Answer: False The heart has a decreased response to the sympathetic system so none of these things will occur. What you can see is an increase in systolic blood pressure but that's related to stiffening of the arteria...

Exam 2: NSG3100 / NSG 3100 (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update) Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice I | Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Galen Q: A new patient is admitted to a medical unit with Clostridium difficile. Which type of precautions or isolation does the nurse know is appropriate for this patient? a. Airborne precautions b. Droplet precautions c. Contact precautions d. Protective isolation Answer: c Q: In which situations does the nurse wear clean gloves...

Exam 3: NUR265 / NUR 265 (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update) Advanced Concepts of Medical–Surgical Nursing Exam Review | Complete Guide with Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Galen Q: What is cholinergic crisis? Answer: too much cholinesterase inhibitor drug Q: What are s/s of cholinergic crisis? Answer: fasciculations hypersalivation sweating bronchospasms increase bronchial secretions bradycardia Q: What is tx for cholinergic crisis? Answer: atropine DO NOT GIVE ANTICHOLINESTERASE Q: W...

Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support (ACLS) Exams A and B 2023 A+ l Please do not mark on this exam. Record the best answer on the separate answer sheet. 1. Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm? A. First-degree B. Second-degree type I C. Second-degree type II D. Third-degree 2. Your patient is in cardiac arrest and has been intubated. To assess CPR quality, which should you do? A. Monitor the patient’s PETCO2 B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG C. Chec...