Heart medications - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries

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Rasmussen College MDC 3 FINAL Exam | 100% Correct Answers | Latest 2024 Version Popular
  • Rasmussen College MDC 3 FINAL Exam | 100% Correct Answers | Latest 2024 Version

  • Exam (elaborations) • 14 pages • 2024
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  • Rasmussen College MDC 3 FINAL Exam | 100% Correct Answers | Latest 2024 Version 1. The nurse is arriving at the beginning of her shift and has taken report on four clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse see first? A. A client with hypertension with a blood pressure of 172/92 mm Hg. B. A client with pain that is two days postoperative from a prostatectomy. C. A client ready for discharge education after treatment of an acute kidney injury. D. A client with a histo...
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RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE ASSMT 2023|2024 REAL EXAM 180 QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS Popular
  • RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE ASSMT 2023|2024 REAL EXAM 180 QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

  • Exam (elaborations) • 34 pages • 2023 Popular
  • ***Download Test Bank Immediately After the Purchase. Just in case you have trouble downloading, kindly message me, and I will send it to you via Google Doc or email. Thank you*** The ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam is a crucial tool for nursing students on the practical nursing track. This exam provides a detailed, comprehensive evaluation of a student's knowledge and abilities before they take the NCLEX-RN. The ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam Guide offer a wide range of practice que...
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NR571 / NR 571 Final Exam (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update): Complex Diagnosis and Management in Acute Care Practicum | Complete Review | Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct –  Chamberlain
  • NR571 / NR 571 Final Exam (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update): Complex Diagnosis and Management in Acute Care Practicum | Complete Review | Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct – Chamberlain

  • Exam (elaborations) • 41 pages • 2024
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  • Final Exam: NUR571 / NUR 571 Complete Review (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update) Complex Diagnosis and Management in Acute Care Practicum |Questions and Verified Answers |100% Correct – Chamberlain Question: A DNR order is signed and a patient has an implantable device. What should be the next step? Answer: implantable cardiac devices: -continuous pacing by a PPM or AICD -uses an LVAD these devices should be deactivated If a DNR order is signed or if a withdrawal of LST is desired by the pat...
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Detailed Answer Key For Medical Surgical Exam, A+ Solutions
  • Detailed Answer Key For Medical Surgical Exam, A+ Solutions

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  • Detailed Answer Key For Medical Surgical Exam, A+ Solutions-1. A nurse is reviewing the cause of gout with a group of nurses. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? A. "Uric acid levels drop and calcium forms precipitate." Rationale: With gout, clients have hyperuricemia, rather than a reduction in uric acid. B. "Tophi form in the kidneys and they impair the excretion of uric acid." Rationale: Tophi, or deposits in tissues near a joint, develop in chronic, late-...
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Exam 2 NR 545 Questions With Complete Solutions
  • Exam 2 NR 545 Questions With Complete Solutions

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  • Chest Pain AKA Angina Patho Correct Answers Patho: Chest pain associated with decreased blood flow or ischemia to the myocardial tissue. Chest pain PA Correct Answers Physical Assessment: chest heaviness Pressure Squeezing Fullness Pain radiates to left shoulder, arm, or jaw. Elevation of blood pressure during attack Chest pain Pharm Correct Answers Pharm: Nitroglycerin- relaxes and widens blood vessels Dosing: 0.3-0.6mg every 5 minutes for max of 3 doses Long-term treatmen...
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Unit 1,2,3,4 & 5: MN 566/ MN566 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A
  • Unit 1,2,3,4 & 5: MN 566/ MN566 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A

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  • Unit 1,2,3,4 & 5: MN 566/ MN566 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A Unit 5 Q: Which of the following medications can cause hyperlipidemia? A. High Dose Diuretics B. Exercising 30 minutes every day C. Hyperthyroidism D. Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker Answer: A. High Dose Diuretics Q: In which patient do premature ventricular contractions NOT need to be treated? A. Kelly, a 25-year-old female with an allergy to bee stings B. Mary, ...
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NR571/ NR 571 Midterm Exam (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Complex Diagnosis & Management in Acute Care Review| Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct |Grade A – Chamberlain
  • NR571/ NR 571 Midterm Exam (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Complex Diagnosis & Management in Acute Care Review| Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct |Grade A – Chamberlain

  • Exam (elaborations) • 62 pages • 2024
  • NR571/ NR 571 Midterm Exam (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Complex Diagnosis & Management in Acute Care Review| Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct |Grade A – Chamberlain Q: The AGACNP is called to see a patient who is ready for discharge after a carotid endarterectomy. The patient is altered and began complaining of new headache this morning. The current vital signs are as follows : heart rate (HR) 116 beats/min, blood pressure (BP) 170/90 mmHg, and temperature 99°F. What orders shou...
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Final Exam: NR547/ NR 547 (Latest 2023/ 2024) Differential Diagnosis in Psychiatric-Mental Health Across the Lifespan Practicum Exam Review| Guide with Verified Answers- Chamberlain
  • Final Exam: NR547/ NR 547 (Latest 2023/ 2024) Differential Diagnosis in Psychiatric-Mental Health Across the Lifespan Practicum Exam Review| Guide with Verified Answers- Chamberlain

  • Exam (elaborations) • 31 pages • 2023
  • Final Exam: NR547/ NR 547 (Latest 2023/ 2024) Differential Diagnosis in Psychiatric-Mental Health Across the Lifespan Practicum Exam Review| Guide with Verified Answers- Chamberlain Q: Independent risk factor for dementia Answer: Depression therefore it is important to evaluate cognitive function when depression is suspected. Older clients may have associated memory loss, slowed processing, or impaired executive functioning. Q: Assessing Depression in Patients with Dementia ...
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NURS 251 Pharmacology Final Exam (UPDATED 2024) - Portage Learning.
  • NURS 251 Pharmacology Final Exam (UPDATED 2024) - Portage Learning.

  • Exam (elaborations) • 17 pages • 2024
  • NURS 251 Pharmacology Final Exam (UPDATED 2024) - Portage Learning. Sublingual: When rapid effect is needed right away Subcutaneous: Destroy or inactivated in the GI Tract Intramuscular: Used for drugs with poor oral absorption Topical: For local effects on skin and eyes Pharmaceutics is the study of how various dosage forms influence the way in which the drug affects the body/ Administration of dosage form, dissolution of drug into body/ manipulating chemical compound. Pharmacokinetics ...
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HESI Exam Version 1: NUR100 / NUR 100 (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update) Pharmacology | Guide with Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A – Fortis
  • HESI Exam Version 1: NUR100 / NUR 100 (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update) Pharmacology | Guide with Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A – Fortis

  • Exam (elaborations) • 25 pages • 2024
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  • HESI Exam Version 1: NUR100 / NUR 100 (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update) Pharmacology | Guide with Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A – Fortis Question: A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication? a. Hypoglycemia b. Proteinuria c. Nasal congestion d. Visual disturbances Answer: b. Proteinuria Question: A nurse is p...
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Exam 2: NSG3250 / NSG 3250 (2024 / 2025 Update) Adult Health I | Complete Review with Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Galen
  • Exam 2: NSG3250 / NSG 3250 (2024 / 2025 Update) Adult Health I | Complete Review with Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Galen

  • Exam (elaborations) • 58 pages • 2024
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  • Exam 2: NSG3250 / NSG 3250 (2024 / 2025 Update) Adult Health I | Complete Review with Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A Q: varicella zoster virus follows a dermatome. Q: risk factors of herpes zoster Answer: advanced age, previous varicella exposure, and immunosuppression. Q: areas typically affected by herpes zoster Answer: chest, back, face. Q: symptoms of herpes zoster Answer: severe pain, bands of vesicles, malaise, fever and itching. Q: what are the herpes zoster phase...
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