Sepsis s - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries
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aapc crc exam 10 with correct answers 100%
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aapc crc exam 10 with correct answers 100% 
 
A patient is admitted to the hospital for repair of an open fracture, type 1, of the head of the left femur. The patient has been previously diagnosed with symptomatic HIV. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported for the admission? --*correct answer*--S72.052B, B20 
A 22-year-old female is admitted to ICU for acute renal (kidney) failure due to sepsis (causal organism unknown). Which ICD-10-CM codes are reported in the correct sequencing? --*correct a...
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CM2 Exam 1 || with Errorless Solutions 100%.
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Common etiology of septic shock along with tx correct answers Steph aureus, strep pneumo, gram (-) 
Tx: Vanc+B lactam 
 
Common etiology and treatment of meningitis correct answers S. pneumo, N menig. 
Tx: Vanco+ Ceftriaxone 
 
Common etiology and treatment of CNS abscess correct answers Strepto, Staph 
Tx: Vanco+ Ceftriaxone+Metron. 
 
What is the blood culture rule for a potentially ill patient? correct answers Minimum of 2 different viles, from 2 different sites to avoid contamination 
 
Comm...
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N432 - Med/Surg III - Final Exam Content
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What is the main result of the progressive stage of shock? - Major organ 
dysfunction/MODS 
Clinical manifestations of moderate hypovolemic shock (30% loss or 1.5L) - 
Anxiety 
Tachypnea 
Mild tachycardia 
Clinical manifestations of severe hypovolemic shock (40%+ or 1.5-2 L) - HR >110 
Hypotension (SBP <100) 
Confusion 
Low UO 
Cool, clammy skin 
Faint or absent peripheral pulses 
Clinical manifestations of cardiogenic shock - SBP <90 for 30+ mins 
Chest pain 
Pulmonary congestion 
Dysp...
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ED SAEM test (Questions & Answers) Rated 100% Correct!!
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1. list ottawa ankle rules 
2. where should you also check on exam/be aware of? - Answer-1. inability to walk 4 steps 
immediately & in ED + any of the following: 
- medial malleolus tenderness 
- lateral malleolus tenderness 
- navicular tenderensss 
- 5th metatarsal tendereness 
2. check fibular head tenderness- twisting injury ~ fibular fx 
name SIRS criteria (4) 
Describe CHEST study findings - Answer-1. Temp < 36 or >38 
2. HR >90 
3. RR >20 or PaCO2 <32 
4. WBC 4,000 > x ...
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NURS 5335 Fam 2 Module 2 Renal SG ACTUAL EXAM WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS
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Most common bacteria that cause GU infections are 
Gram (-) 
 
 
Most common bacteria in GU infections are 
-E. coli 
-Proteus 
-Klebsiellay 
-Enterobacter 
 
 
 
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Gram (+) bacteria that causes GU infections 
Staph saprophyticus 
 
 
What can mimic UTI and may warrant a pelvic exam 
-Yeast infection 
-STD 
 
 
Elderly UTI S/S 
-Delirium 
-Urinary incontinence 
-Sepsis 
 
 
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FPC / CFRN - Review Exam - Version B
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Myxedema coma is also known as... 
 
A. Thyroid storm 
B. Adrenal insufficiency 
C. Hypothyroidism 
D. Hyperaldosteronism - Answer-Hypothyroidism 
 
Most common presentation of a patient with hypothyroidism are all of the following, Except... 
 
A. Cold intolerance with coarse hair 
B. Almost exclusively over the age of sixty 
C. >90% of cases occur in the winter 
D. Primarily in men - Answer-Primarily in men 
 
Hypothroidism occurs primarily in women, almost exclusively over the age of sixty...
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HESI RN EXIT EXAM V1-V7 (LATEST ) / RN EXIT HESI EXAM V1,V2,V3,V4,V5,V6,V7
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HESI RN EXIT EXAM V1-V7 (LATEST ) / RN EXIT HESI 
EXAM V1,V2,V3,V4,V5,V6,V7 
1. Following discharge teaching, a male client with duodenal ulcer tells the nurse the he will 
drink plenty of dairy products, such as milk, to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the 
best follow-up action by the nurse? 
• Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream 
2. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his 
last visit returns ...
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Comprehensive CRNA Interview Review Accurate responses are given.
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Comprehensive CRNA Interview Review Accurate responses are given. 
 
Comprehensive CRNA Interview Review 
 
Norepinephrine Mechanism of Action (MOA) 
A1, A2, B1 agonist. 
 
Primary agent used in distributive shock because it's ability to recruit venous volume and augment preload, while increasing arterial tone, and increasing cardiac output. 
 
Alpha one causing peripheral smooth muscle contraction. (low dose venous, high dose venous and arterial). 
 
Alpha 2 adrenoreceptor agonism actually ant...
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ICD-10-CM Guidelines Exam Questions And Answers 100% Verified
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ICD-10-CM Guidelines Exam Questions And 
Answers 100% Verified 
Code only _____ cases of HIV. Lab work is not required only the physician documents. - 
answerConfirmed 
When a patient is admitted for an HIV related condition, _____ is sequenced first followed by 
additional diagnoses codes for all reported HIV related conditions. - answerB20 
If a patient with HIV disease is admitted for an unrelated condition such as a fracture, the code 
for the unrelated condition is coded _______. B20 is use...
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AC3 + EXAM 2 PRACTICE Questions with Correct Answers
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A 27 year old paraplegic male has an admission diagnosis of sepsis and currently receiving Vancomycin. A peak and trough level is to be performed with this dose of the medication. What should the nurse do first? - Correct Answer-Check to be certain trough level was drawn. 
 
A patient with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome has gone into septic shock. She is being given Solu-cortef 100mg IV/100mL NS over 30min Q4H x 8 doses. What two lab abnormalities must the nurse monitor for? (Select all tha...
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