Tetanus prophylaxis - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries
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Exam 1: NSG233/ NSG 233 (New 2023/ 2024 Update) Med Surg 3 Exam| Guide with Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct- Herzing
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Exam 1: NSG233/ NSG 233 (New 2023/ 2024 
Update) Med Surg 3 Exam| Guide with 
Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct- Herzing 
QUESTION 
 Triage patients in the ED 
 Use ESI (emergency severity index) tool 
Responsibilities of triage nurse: 
Assess, reassess, initiate treatment, manage and communicate, edu tients, transport them 
 
 
QUESTION 
 Meds for managing sexual assault 
 
Answer: 
 Prophylaxis for gonorrhea 
Ceftriaxone + 1% lidocaine 
Prophylaxis for syphilis and chlamydia: S...
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AANP Board 146 Questions with Answers,100% CORRECT
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AANP Board 146 Questions with Answers 
 
 
 
INR values below ____ increase stroke risk sixfold. - CORRECT ANSWER 2 
 
What allergy contradicts the use of thiazide diuretics? - CORRECT ANSWER Sulfa 
 
Why should ACE-Is be avoided with renal stenosis? - CORRECT ANSWER Leads to ARF 
 
Adverse effects of aldosterone antagonists (Aldactone) - CORRECT ANSWER Galactorrhea and hyperkalemia 
 
What are beta blocker indications? - CORRECT ANSWER HTN, post-MI< angina, arrhythmias, migraine prophylaxis,...
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NSG 6340 PREDICTOR STUDY GUIDE 2
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NSG 6340 PREDICTOR STUDY GUIDE 2 
1.	A 37-year-old female patient with a history of a single episode of depression and frequent complaints of PMS is being treated for hypothyroidism. Today she complains of poor concentration and fatigue. Initially, the NP should: 
a.	Question her further 
3.	Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention? 
a.	Annual influenza vaccination 
7.	A 35-year old female with a history of mitral valve prolapse is scheduled for routine dental cleaning. Accor...
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AANP Board Questions and answers 2023 With Complete Solution Graded and Already Passed.
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INR values below ____ increase stroke risk sixfold. - CORRECT ANS 2 
What allergy contradicts the use of thiazide diuretics? - CORRECT ANS Sulfa 
Why should ACE-Is be avoided with renal stenosis? - CORRECT ANS Leads to ARF 
Adverse effects of aldosterone antagonists (Aldactone) - CORRECT ANS Galactorrhea and hyperkalemia 
What are beta blocker indications? - CORRECT ANS HTN, post-MI< angina, arrhythmias, migraine prophylaxis, hyperthyroidism 
1st line BP med for DM? -...
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ABFM ITE Test Study Guide | 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest 2024 Version
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Screening frequency for patients with esophageal varices - Every 2-3 years with EGD 
Best nonpharmacologic management in sundowning - Sensory stimulation (massage, touch, and 
music therapy) 
Tetanus prophylaxis for pregnancy - Tdap between 27-36 weeks 
Most common radiographic finding in early pulmonary sarcoidosis - Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy 
alone on CXR. 
Most common cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, besides hemolysis - Gilbert syndrome 
Populations were triptan use is CId and ...
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ABFM ITE questions & answers graded A+
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ABFM ITEScreening frequency for patients with esophageal varices - correct answer Every 2-3 years with EGD 
 
Best nonpharmacologic management in sundowning - correct answer Sensory stimulation (massage, touch, and music therapy) 
 
Tetanus prophylaxis for pregnancy - correct answer Tdap between 27-36 weeks 
 
Most common radiographic finding in early pulmonary sarcoidosis - correct answer Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy alone on CXR. 
 
Most common cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinem...
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CEN Orthopedic and Wound Emergencies exam 2024 with 100% correct answers
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A seventeen-year-old is brought to the emergency department complaining of leg pain after a motor vehicle crash. X-rays show a fracture of the femur with several bone fragments at the fracture site. You note that the skin above the fracture site is intact but bruised. This type of fracture is called: 
a. Open 
b. Avulsion 
c. compression 
d. Comminuted correct answersD. A comminuted fracture is one in which there are more than two portions of the fractured bone. In a comminuted fracture, you...
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SAEM 2024 Final Exam || Questions & Answers (100% Correct)
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SAEM 2024 Final Exam || Questions & Answers (100% Correct) 
SAEM 2024 Final Exam || Questions & Answers (100% Correct) 
 
Management of Large Subungual Hematoma - ANSWER - Drainage (18-Gauge) or Hot Micro-Cauterization 
 
Reason to Avoid Suction in Ear Foreign Body Removal - ANSWER - Perforation of Tympanic Membrane 
 
Management of Skin Abscess - ANSWER - Linear Incision for Non-Face vs. Needle Drainage for Face 
 
Catheter for Bartholin Cyst - ANSWER - Word 
 
Grading of Laryngeal Opening - AN...
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Test Bank Family Practice Guidelines 5th Edition Cash Glass Mullen
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Test Bank Family Practice Guidelines 5th Edition Cash Glass Mullen 
Table of Contents Chapter 1. Health Maintenance Guidelines ...................................................................... 2 Chapter 2. Public Health Guidelines .............................................................................. 26 Chapter 3. Pain Management Guidelines ....................................................................... 50 Chapter 4. Dermatology Guidelines ......................................
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ABFM ITE Exam Questions with correct Answers
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ABFM ITE Exam Questions with correct Answers 
Persistent HTN is defined as ______. - -HTN despite 3 or more antiHTN rx, including a diuretics 
HTN + Hyperkalemia + low renin + elevated aldosterone. Dx? - -Primary hyperaldosteronism 
A ______ would be used to evaluate for a neuroendocrine tumor, which can present as chronic flushing 
and diarrhea. - -24-hour urine collection for 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) 
______ level can be checked if Cushing syndrome is suspected. Hypertension, obesit...
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