A 26 year old male - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries

1. A 36-year-old female is unresponsive following a motor vehicle accident. Fol- lowing insertion of a supraglottic airway, you note diminished breath sounds on the right. What should you do? a. insert the supraglottic airway further b. assess for a cardiac tamponade c. assess for a pneumothorax d. withdraw the supraglottic airway: d. withdraw the supraglottic airway 2. A 19-year-old female was a restrained passenger in a car crash. She has a laceration to her head, bubbling from an upper c...

Final Exam: NR 509/ NR509 Advanced Physical Assessment Final Practice Questions with Verified Answers (Latest 2023/ 2024)- Chamberlain 1. A 42-year-old school teacher with a history of irregular periods who underwent successful intrauterine insemination (IUI) on January 25th presents to the clinic for care on March 19th. Her last menstrual period (LMP) was November 11th of the previous year. Which of the following is true about the gestational age of her pregnancy?  Answer: It is dete...

A physician has ordered subcutaneous injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain for a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware that there is a high abuse potential for this drug and that it is categorized as a Selected Answer: C-II drug.  Question 2 1 out of 1 points Glargine (Lantus) is an insulin analog that essentially has no peak and is usually administered: Selected Answer: Once a day.  Question 3 0 out of 1 points The NP is examining ...

A male client with Type 1 diabetes mellitus takes a combination of short acting and intermediate acting insulin. The client complains of headaches when awakening and his blood glucose average for the past week has been 210. The nurse recognizes the client is experiencing a daily Somogyi, or rebound effect. Which dosing method is likely to relieve these symptoms? Move the PM intermediate- acting dose to bedtime. When obtaining a throat culture from a 6 year old with possible strepococcal infect...

A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood pressure. He has no additional chronic medical problems and is otherwise asymptomatic. An examination is significant for a blood pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory work shows that his BMP is within normal limits. According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017 guidelines, which one of the following would be the most appropriate medication to initiate at this time...

NEW GENERATION HESI PATHOPHYSIOLOGY TEST BANK WITH CORRECT ANSWERS | REAL EXAMS After talking with the healthcare provider, a male client continues to have questions about the results of a prostatic surface antigen (PSA) screening test and asks the nurse how the PSA levels become elevated. The nurse should explain which pathophysiological mechanism? A. As the prostate gland enlarges, its cells contribute more PSA in the circulating blood. Correct B. The PSA levels normally rise and fall...

NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology Test Questions with Answers 2023 Graded A+. A 46-year-old woman presents to the psychiatric outpatient clinic for follow-up treatment of major depression. She is currently on paroxetine 10 mg at bedtime, which she started taking 2 months ago when admitted to the psychiatric hospital for suicidal ideation. During the interview, she says that she does not think the medication is working because she is just as depressed as she was before taking the medication and ...

A 26 year old female does not respond to verbal stimuli but moans in response to pain. A friend states the patient has ingested approx 150 amitriptyline tables. Vital Signs are BP 88/50 R16. You establish IV access and administer a fluid challenge. En route to the hospital her ECG shows a widening QRS. You should administer: Sodium Bicarbonate. 3. 3. You PT experienced trauma yesterday and you are transferring her to a larger facility. She has been experiencing progressive hypoxia. You not...

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Question 2. Which of the following is a potential acquired cause of thrombophilia? Question 3 Phalen’s test, 90°wrist flexion for 60 seconds, reproduces symptoms of: Ulnar tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome Tarsal tunnel syndrome Myofascial pain syndrome Question 4 Which patient would benefit most from screening for type 2 diabetes? A 30 year old female with unintended weight loss. A 25 year old male with family history of type 1 diabetes An obese female with recurrent vaginitis A 50 year...