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BPME and PPME study guide UPDATED
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ENLISTED PROFESSIONALISMBlock 1
SECTION 1
MILITARY FORMATIONS
1. Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits? Precision and automatic response
2. Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner? From most senior award to most junior
3. Which of the following is NOT a reason to conduct a personnel inspection? To use as a tool to punish your Sailors
4 As a leader, you will organize your Sailors into formation for which one of the following occasions? Awards ceremony
5. During the Revolutionary War, ______________ developed a set of standardized drills for General George
Washington and the Continental Army. Baron von Steuben
6. Which event would NOT require the Commanding Officer to order the ship to man the rails? Leaving the shipyards
after 120 days
7. Who is known as the “Drillmaster of the American Revolution”? Baron von Steuben
8. What type of command is the first word in “Parade Rest”? Preparatory
9. At the beginning of the Revolutionary War, ______________ was the leaders' primary tool to achieve discipline in
ranks. fear
10. What do you call the extreme right or left of an element? FLANK
11. As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position? Attention
12. Sailors are in a _____________, when placed in formation one behind the other? File
13. Which of the following events would not require you, as a leader, to hold military quarters? Refueling evolution
14. What is the distance between ranks? 40
15. A/an__________ can be a single person or a section of a larger formation.
Element
File
16. When giving a command, what do you call the rise and fall of the pitch in your voice? inflection
17. What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an inspection of the sailors?
OPEN RANKS
18. Manning the rails in today’s Navy is equivalent to in the days of sail.
Manning the yardarm and cheering
19. As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your sailors? Prior to the seasonal
uniform change
,SECTION 2
MILITARY UNIFORMS, CUSTOMS AND COURTESIES
1. When in a military vehicle and an officer is seen, who renders the hand salute? The right front passenger seat salutes
2. What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms? The requirement to generate, maintain, and
update the uniform regulations
3. When walking with a senior, what side do you walk on? LEFT
4. Who exits a military vehicle first? The senior leaves first
5. How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. Army? The hat insignia and rank insignia contain the eagle from
the great seal
6. What is the U.S. Army’s highest enlisted pay grade? Sergeant Major
7. What is meant by “under arms”? When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon
8. At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer? At six paces or closest point of approach.
9. The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of ? Chief Master Sergeant
10. What is the definition of “prescribable items? Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the
basic uniform. Items may be worn with basic uniforms at the individual’s discretion unless otherwise directed.
11. What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade? Staff Sergeant
12. What is meant by “under arms”? When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon
13. What is the definition of “prescribable items”? uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with
the basic uniform. Items may be worn with the basic uniform at individual’s discretion unless otherwise directed
,SECTION 3
THE FLEET RESPONSE PLAN
1. Presence with a purpose” provides what? Routine
2. Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption of FRP? 2001 Quadrennial
Defense Review
3. Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cycle
(IDTC)? Commander, Fleet Forces Command
4. When is a CSG considered surge ready? When they have completed unit level phase training
5. The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories?
Emergency surge, surge ready, routine deployable, deployed
6. The Fleet Response Plan is often referred to as what? Fleet Readiness Plan
7. What time frame does the Fleet Response Plan use as its cycle? A 27-month cycle
8. At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is? a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan
9. The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days? 6
10. When is a ship, sub, or squadron considered routine deployable? After successfully completing all necessary
capabilities training including completion of underway sustainment phase training and certification of the unit for
forward deployed operations
11. Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet? Sea Basing
12. What does the 6 + 2 plan provide? 6 CSG available to deploy within 30 days, plus 2 available to deploy in 90 days
13. Due to the war on terror, Secretary of the Navy England challenged the U.S. Navy to do what? Maintain its
relevance
14. Under the 27-month Fleet Response Plan, a carrier strike group is surge ready for how many months?
Approximately 16 months
15. The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments in
support of specific national priorities such as?
homeland defense
16. When is a CSG considered in emergency surge status? When they have successfully completed their unit level phase
training phase
SECTION 4
CPO HISTORY, DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES
1. The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the? hat device
2. Which regulation established the grade of chief petty officer on 1 April 1893? US Navy Regulation Circular Number 1
, 3. On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty officer. Which of the following
was a defined role? The top technical authority and expert within a rating
4. The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to? Represent the enlisted force to Navy leadership on
professional and personnel issues
5. The Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change? It designated chief petty officers as
paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1
6. What initiative led directly to the recommendation for establishing the billet of Master Chief Petty Officer of the
Navy? The Retention Task Force of 1964
7. In the early 1900’s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first? Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their
own command
8. During the early 1900’s chief petty officers could receive a permanent appointment based on? Satisfactory
performance, as evaluated by the commanding officer
9. On 28 April 1967, ____________ became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy. GMCM Delbert Black
10. What is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy?
Report to CNP
11. On 13 January 1967, GMCM Delbert Black was officially appointed as the first? Senior Enlisted Advisor of the Navy
12. The duties and responsibilities of a master chief petty officer in 1978 were? broadened to include contributing to
command-level policy formulation
13. The paygrades of senior chief and master chief petty officer were established in what year? 1958
14. The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to? Strengthen chief petty officer standards
15. According to the 1918 Blue Jacket’s Manual, two roles of a CPO were . Technical expert and example setter
16. In 1958, the Career Compensation Act of 1949 was amended. The Navy created the senior chief and master chief
petty officer pay grades for what reason? To keep a chief beyond 20 years.
SECTION 5
OVERVIEW OF MANPOWER MANAGEMENT OF THE SEL
1. TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for?
resource sponsors
2. Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? Environment in which a command is expected
to operate
3. Changes to the AMD can come from what factors?
Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform
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