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NURS 6630 Final Exam
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NURS 6630 Final Exam
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NURS 6630 Final ExamQUESTION 1
What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression
who needs to manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from
striatal hyperactivity?
A. Stimulants B. Antidepressants C. Antipsychotics D. SSRIs
QUESTION 2
The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is
exhibiting psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the
available treatments, which can help temper some of the adverse effects or
symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism?
A. First-generation, conventional antipsychotics B. First-generation, atypical
antipsychotics C. Second-generation, conventional antipsychotics D. Second-
generation, atypical antipsychotics
QUESTION 3
,The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association
with aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP
prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics?
A. The doses are based on achieving 100% D2 receptor occupancy. B. The doses
are based on achieving a minimum of 80% D2 receptor occupancy. C. The doses
are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy. D. None of the above.
QUESTION 4
Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line
treatment to the patient with psychosis and aggression?
A. There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects. B. It can exaggerate
the psychotic symptoms. C. Clozapine (Clozaril) should not be used as high-dose
monotherapy. D. There is no documentation that clozapine (Clozaril) is effective
for patients who are violent.
QUESTION 5
The PMHNP is caring for a patient on risperidone (Risperdal). Which action made
by the PMHNP exhibits proper care for this patient?
,A. Explaining to the patient that there are no risks of EPS B. Prescribing the patient
12 mg/dail C. Titrating the dose by increasing it every 5–7 days D. Writing a
prescription for a higher dose of oral risperidone (Risperdal) to achieve high D2
receptor occupancy
QUESTION 6
The PMHNP wants to prescribe Mr. Barber a mood stabilizer that will target
aggressive and impulsive symptoms by decreasing dopaminergic
neurotransmission. Which mood stabilizer will the PMHNP select? A. Lithium
(Lithane) B. Phenytoin (Dilantin) C. Valproate (Depakote) D. Topiramate
(Topamax)
QUESTION 7
The parents of a 7-year-old patient with ADHD are concerned about the effects of
stimulants on their child. The parents prefer to start pharmacological treatment
with a non-stimulant. Which medication will the PMHNP will most likely
prescribe?
A. Strattera B. Concerta C. Daytrana D. Adderall
, QUESTION 8
8 The PMHNP understands that slow-dose extended release stimulants are most
appropriate for which patient with ADHD?
A. 8-year-old patient B. 24-year-old patient C. 55-year-old patient D. 82-year-old
patient
QUESTION 9
A patient is prescribed D-methylphenidate, 10-mg extended-release capsules. What
should the PMHNP include when discussing the side effects with the patient?
A. The formulation can have delayed actions when taken with food. B. Sedation
can be a common side effect of the drug. C. The medication can affect your
blood pressure. D. This drug does not cause any dependency.
QUESTION 10
The PMHNP is teaching parents about their child’s new prescription for Ritalin.
What will the PMHNP include in the teaching?
A. The second dose should be taken at lunch. B. There are no risks for insomnia.
C. There is only one daily dose, to be taken in the morning. D. There will be
continued effects into the evening.
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