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Genitourinary Disorders Practice Questions and Answers 2024/2025
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Genitourinary Disorders Practice Questions and Answers 2024/2025
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Genitourinary Disorders PracticeQuestions and Answers 2024/2025
The client asks, "What does an elevated PSA test mean?" On which scientific rationale
should the nurse base the response?
1. An elevated PSA can result from several different causes.
2. An elevated PSA can be only from prostate cancer.
3. An elevated PSA can be diagnostic for testicular cancer.
4. An elevated PSA is the only test used to diagnose BPH. - ANSWER-Answer: 1
1. An elevated PSA can be from urinary retention, BPH, prostate cancer, or prostate
infarct.
2. An elevated PSA does not indicate only prostate cancer.
3. PSA does not diagnose testicular cancer.
4. An elevated PSA and digital examination are used in combination to diagnose BPH
or prostate cancer.
TEST-TAKING HINT: Answer options "2" and "4" have the word "only"; an absolute
word should cause the test taker to eliminate them as possible answers. Options with
words such as "always," "never," and "only" are usually incorrect.
The client diagnosed with a UTI has a blood pressure of 83/56 mm Hg and a pulse of
122 bpm. Which should the nurse implement first?
1. Notify the health-care provider (HCP).
2. Hang the IVPB antibiotic at the prescribed rate.
3. Check the laboratory work to determine if the urine culture has been completed.
4. Increase the normal saline IV fluids from keep open to 150 mL/hour on the IV pump. -
ANSWER-Answer: 4
1. The HCP should be notified, but this delay could cost the client's life; this client is in
septic shock.
2. The IVPB will not treat the client as quickly as increasing the IV fluids. This would be
the second action to be performed by the nurse.
3. This is not the time to check the EHR for information; it is the time for action.
4. This is septic shock and not fluid volume shock, but the circulatory system is still
compromised. Increasing the fluid volume will support the client's BP until the IVPB is
infused.
TEST-TAKING HINT: The test taker must remember: "If in stress, do not assess; do
something that will treat the client."
,The client diagnosed with AKI has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which
collaborative treatment should the nurse anticipate for the client?
1. Administer a phosphate binder.
2. Type and crossmatch for whole blood.
3. Assess the client for leg cramps.
4. Prepare the client for dialysis. - ANSWER-Answer: 4
1. Phosphate binders are used to treat elevated phosphorus levels, not elevated
potassium levels.
2. Anemia is not the result of an elevated potassium level.
3. Assessment is an independent nursing action, which is appropriate for the elevated
potassium level, but the question asks for a collaborative treatment.
4. Normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.3 mEq/L. A level of 6.8 mEq/L is life-threatening
and could lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the client may be dialyzed to
decrease the potassium level quickly. This requires an HCP order, so it is a
collaborative intervention.
TEST-TAKING HINT: Adjectives must be noted when reading the stem of the question
and the answer options.
The client diagnosed with AKI is admitted to the intensive care unit and placed on a
therapeutic diet. Which diet is most appropriate for the client?
1. A high-potassium and low-calcium diet.
2. A low-fat and low-cholesterol diet.
3. A high-carbohydrate and restricted-protein diet.
4. A regular diet with six small feedings a day. - ANSWER-Answer: 3
1. The diet is low potassium, and calcium is not restricted in AKI.
2. This is a diet recommended for clients diagnosed with cardiac disease and
atherosclerosis.
3. Carbohydrates are increased to provide for the client's caloric intake, and protein is
restricted to minimize protein breakdown and to prevent the accumulation of toxic waste
products.
4. The client must be on a therapeutic diet, and small feedings are not required.
TEST-TAKING HINT: The test taker must notice adjectives. A "therapeutic" diet should
cause the test taker to eliminate option "4" because it is a regular diet.
The client diagnosed with AKI is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should
the nurse prepare to administer to help decrease the potassium level?
1. Erythropoietin.
2. Calcium gluconate.
3. Regular insulin.
,4. Osmotic diuretic. - ANSWER-Answer: 3
1. Erythropoietin is a chemical catalyst produced by the kidneys to stimulate red blood
cell production; it does not affect the potassium level.
2. Calcium gluconate helps protect the heart from the effects of high potassium levels.
3. Regular insulin, along with glucose, will drive potassium into the cells, thereby
lowering serum potassium levels temporarily.
4. A loop diuretic, not an osmotic diuretic, may be ordered to help decrease the
potassium level.
TEST-TAKING HINT: The test taker must be familiar with medical terms such as
"hyperkalemia" and know the rationale for administering medications.
The client diagnosed with AKI is placed on bedrest. The client asks the nurse, "Why do I
have to stay in bed? I don't feel bad." Which scientific rationale supports the nurse's
response?
1. Bedrest helps increase the blood return to the renal circulation.
2. Bedrest reduces the metabolic rate during the acute stage.
3. Bedrest decreases the workload of the left side of the heart.
4. Bedrest aids in the reduction of peripheral and sacral edema. - ANSWER-Answer: 2
1. Kidney function is improved by about 40% when recumbent, but this is not the
scientific rationale for bedrest in AKI.
2. Bedrest reduces exertion and the metabolic rate, thereby reducing catabolism and
subsequent release of potassium and accumulation of endogenous waste products
(urea and creatinine).
3. This is a scientific rationale for prescribing bedrest in clients diagnosed with heart
failure.
4. This is not the scientific rationale for prescribing bedrest. The foot of the bed may be
elevated to help decrease peripheral edema, and bedrest causes an increase in sacral
edema.
TEST-TAKING HINT: The test taker should not jump to conclusions and select the only
option with "renal" in the sentence. The nurse must know the normal anatomy and
physiology of the body and be aware that keeping someone in bed will not restore
kidney function when the kidneys have failed.
The client diagnosed with cancer of the bladder is scheduled to have a cutaneous
urinary diversion procedure. Which preoperative teaching intervention specific to the
procedure should be included?
1. Demonstrate turn, cough, and deep breathing.
2. Explain a bag will drain the urine from now on.
3. Instruct the client on the use of a PCA pump.
4. Take the client to the ICU to become familiar with it. - ANSWER-Answer: 2
, 1. Any client undergoing general anesthesia should be taught to turn, cough, and deep
breathe to prevent pulmonary complications. This is not specific to a urinary diversion
procedure.
2. A urinary diversion procedure involves the removal of the bladder. In a cutaneous
procedure, the ureters are implanted in some way to allow for stoma formation on the
abdominal wall, and the urine drains into a pouch. There are numerous methods used
for creating the stoma.
3. Many clients with multiple types of procedures use PCA pumps to control pain after
surgery.
4. This should be done for any client expected to need intensive care postoperatively.
TEST-TAKING HINT: The test taker must notice the phrase "specific to the procedure"
to be able to answer this question correctly. All of the options are standard interventions
for major surgeries, but only one is specific to the procedure.
The client diagnosed with cancer of the bladder is undergoing intravesical
chemotherapy. Which instructions should the nurse provide the client about the
procedure? Select all that apply.
1. Instruct the client to restrict fluids 4 hours before the procedure.
2. Teach not to empty the bladder for 1 to 2 hours after the procedure.
3. Explain that the client will need to administer filgrastim at home.
4. Have the client take acetaminophen before coming to the clinic.
5. Tell the client to sit to avoid urine splashing after the procedure. - ANSWER-Answer:
1, 2, 5
1. The client should restrict fluid intake, caffeinated beverages, and the use of diuretics
4 hours prior to the procedure.
2. The client will need to avoid emptying the bladder for 1 to 2 hours after the
procedure.
3. The advantage of administering chemotherapy intravesically is that the systemic side
effects of bone marrow suppression are avoided. Filgrastim (Neupogen), a biologic
response modifier, is used to stimulate the production of WBCs, so a client is not at risk
for developing an infection and is not necessary.
4. The procedure is not painful, so acetaminophen (Tylenol), an analgesic, is not
needed. The client may use acetaminophen or ibuprofen for postprocedure body aches
or fever.
5. After the procedure, for the first void and the next 6 hours, the client should sit to
avoid urine splashing, avoid public toilets or urinating outside, and should be taught the
use of bleach to clean the toilet after voiding at home.
TEST-TAKING HINT: If the test taker is not aware of the term "intravesical," then
dividing the word into its components may be useful. Intra- means "into" and vesical
means "bladder." The test taker should choose options that have a direct effect on urine
production and elimination.
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