AASM Sleep Exam 2 Questions and Answers 2024/25 Update
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Course
AASM Sleep 2
Institution
AASM Sleep 2
AASM Sleep Exam 2 Questions and Answers 2024/25 Update
Following RECOMMENDED guidelines, which of the following would be an appropriate time to end an MWT:
1. No sleep at 20 minutes of recording
2. 20 minutes even if sleep occurs earlier
3. A single epoch of N1
4. 3 consecutive epochs of stage...
AASM Sleep Exam 2 Questions and Answers
2024/25 Update
1. What is a hypnagogic jerk?
A) A muscle spasm during the transition from stage 1 to stage 2 sleep
B) A muscle spasm during the transition from stage 2 to REM sleep
C) A muscle spasm during the transition from sleep to wakefulness
D) A muscle spasm during the transition from wakefulness to sleep
Answer: D) A muscle spasm during the transition from wakefulness to sleep
2. Obstructive sleep apnea is normally at its worst when the patient is:
A) In stage 2 on their side
B) In REM on their back
C) In stage 3 on their side
D) In stage 2 on their side
Answer: B) In REM on their back
3. Which of these devices produces its own electricity?
A) Thermistor
B) Oximeter
C) Piezo-electric crystal band
D) Actigraph
Answer: C) Piezo-electric crystal band
4. True statements about the process of biocalibrations include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A) The tech notes should reflect the movements made by the patient
B) The patient should be supine and still throughout biocalibrations
C) Biocalibrations are done at the beginning of the study only
D) Nasal and oral breathing are done on the NPSGs only
Answer: D) Nasal and oral breathing are done on the NPSGs only
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5. Which of the following is NOT true of EEG during stage 2 non-REM sleep?
A) There are periods between K complexes or sleep spindles of less than 3 minutes
that are unrelated to arousals
B) Delta activity is less than 20% of the epoch
C) Abrupt K complex clusters and delta waves may indicate arousals
D) Activity is high voltage
Answer: A) There are periods between K complexes or sleep spindles of less than 3
minutes that are unrelated to arousals
6. Which of the following are the recommended impedance levels for the EEG
electrodes?
A) Less than 20,000 ohms
B) Less than 5 ohms
C) Less than 5k ohms
D) At least 20,000 ohms
Answer: A) Less than 20,000 ohms
7. According to the RECOMMENDED guidelines for scoring arousals in adults,
which of the following is the BEST statement?
A) Scoring of arousals during stage R requires either an increase in submental EMG
or an increase in leg EMG
B) The 10 seconds of sleep required prior to scoring an arousal may begin to the
preceding epoch, even if that epoch is scored as stage W
C) Abrupt shifts in EEG frequency associated with arousal can include alpha, theta,
spindles, and/or frequencies greater than 16 Hz
D) Information should be incorporated from the majority of EEG channels
Answer: C) Abrupt shifts in EEG frequency associated with arousal can include
alpha, theta, spindles, and/or frequencies greater than 16 Hz
8. When periodic limb movements of sleep are scored as an event, which of the
following is false?
A) An event ranges in duration from 0.5-10 seconds, with an EMG amplitude of 8µV
or more
B) Timing of the event begins at the point of an 8µV increase on EMG
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C) Timing of the event ends with a period, lasting 0.5 seconds longer, during which
EMG doesn't rise more than 2µV
D) An event requires four or more consecutive leg movements with the interval
between movements ranging from 5-90 seconds
Answer: C) Timing of the event ends with a period, lasting 0.5 seconds longer,
during which EMG doesn't rise more than 2µV
9. The electrode array used for recording physiologic activity is referred to as:
A) Polarity
B) Sensitivity
C) Impedance
D) Montage
Answer: D) Montage
10. Delta waves must be how many microvolts (µV) in amplitude to count toward
stage N3 sleep percentages?
A) 75µV
B) 30µV
C) 100µV
D) 55µV
Answer: C) 100µV
11. While in the sleep lab, a patient has to do all the following EXCEPT:
A) Have PSG equipment attached to the body
B) Sign a consent form
C) Remain supine for the entire study
D) Remain connected to equipment for at least 6 hours
Answer: C) Remain supine for the entire study
12. What percentage drop in the SpO2 data must be seen to score an obstructive
event?
A) 3% or more
B) 4% or more
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C) 5% or more
D) No required drop in the SpO2 channel
Answer: A) 3% or more
13. To ensure REM sleep has a chance to occur during a multiple sleep latency test
nap, how long should the nap continue?
A) 25 minutes following "lights out"
B) 15 minutes following sleep onset
C) 15 minutes following "lights out"
D) 20 minutes following sleep onset
Answer: C) 15 minutes following "lights out"
14. Which of the following would be a contraindication of PAP therapy?
A) GERD
B) Rhinitis
C) COPD
D) Tracheostomy
Answer: D) Tracheostomy
15. Which of the following low-frequency/high-frequency filter settings
appropriately isolate the significant frequency ranges in the EEG channels?
A) 0.1/35
B) 0.3/35
C) 0.5/35
D) 1.0/35
Answer: B) 0.3/35
16. Oral appliance is an alternative option for patients with:
A) Hypoventilation
B) Central apnea
C) Restrictive lung disease
D) Mild obstructive sleep apnea
Answer: D) Mild obstructive sleep apnea
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