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BCCCP Exam Questions and answers | With complete solution Newest 2024/25 Rated A+
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BCCCP Exam Questions and answers | With complete solution Newest 2024/25 Rated A+
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BCCCP Exam Questions and answers |With complete solution Newest 2024/25
Rated A+
2 classes of NMBA, MOA, and examples - Correct Answers 1. Depolarizing: binds and
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activates acetylcholine receptors causing persistent depolarization (succinylcholine)
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2. Nondepolarizing: blocks the action of acetylcholine and the neuromuscular junction (all
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others - vec, roc, atra, cisatra)
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2 medications in the Orange Book with a B rating - Correct Answers pharmaceutical
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equivalents only and cannot be interchanged
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2 medications in the Orange Book with an A rating - Correct Answers Both
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pharmaceutical equivalents and bioequivalents and can be interchanged
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4T score: other causes of platelet fall - Correct Answers 2 points: none evident
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1 point: possible
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0 points: definite
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4T score: pretest probability scores - Correct Answers Low positive predictive value:
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High: 6-8 points II II
Intermediate: 4-5 points II II
High negative predictive value:
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Low: 0-3 points II II
4T score: thrombocytopenia - Correct Answers 2 points: >50% platelet fall to nadir >20
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1 point: 30-50% platelet fall, or nadir 10-19
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0 points: <30% platelet fall, or nadir <10
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4T score: thrombosis - Correct Answers 2 points: proven new thrombosis, skin
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necrosis, or acute systemic reaction after IV UFH bolus
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1 point: progressive or recurrent thrombosis or suspected thrombosis
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0 points: no thrombosis
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4T score: Timing - Correct Answers 2 points: Days 5-10, or <1 day with recent heparin
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exposure (past 30 days)
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1 point: >10 days of timing unclear, or <1 day with recent heparin exposure (past 31-100
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days)
II
0 points: <day 4 with no recent heparin exposure
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II 5 trace elements in PN
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,Which would you withhold for patients with hepatobiliary/cholestatic liver disease?
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Which would you without in renal impairment (without RRT)? - Correct Answers Zinc,
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copper, chromium, manganese, selenium
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Copper and manganese II II
Selenium
A course or plan of action which establishes standards of practice or quality/compliance
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measures and protects against error - Correct Answers Policy
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A simple course of action intended to achieve a result. Describes in detail a logical
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sequence of a process to be followed to complete he task in a consistent manner -
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Correct Answers Procedure
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About how many critical care residency programs are added per year - Correct Answers
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8
II
Acetylcysteine dose for APAP-induced ALF (IV) - Correct Answers 150 mg/kg (max
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15g) over 60 min
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50 mg/kg (max 5g) over 4 hours, following by 100 mg/kg (max 10g) over 16 hours
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Acetylcysteine dose for non-APAP-induced ALF (IV) - Correct Answers 150 mg/kg over
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60 min
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12.5 mg/kg/hr x 4 hrs II II II II
6.25 mg/kg/hr x 67 hrs II II II II
ADE vs. ADR - Correct Answers ADE is an injury resulting from the use of a drug,
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*including* ADRs (normal doses) and OVERdoses
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-preventable (med error, DDI, nonpreventable) II II II II
-FDA-reportable
ADR is any response to a drug which is noxious and unintended, and which occurs at
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doses *normally used* for ppx, diagnosis, or therapy. By this definition, a drug that does
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not produce the intended outcome would be considered an ADR (side effects and ADRs
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used synonymously)
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Agents that decrease the shivering threshold - Correct Answers -Scheduled tylenol
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-scheduled buspirone II
-magnesium
-meperidine (but inc risk seizures w/ decreased CrCl during hypothermia) II II II II II II II II II
-precedex/clonidine
-propofol
,AIS and alteplase
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1. Onset of symptoms window
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2. INR goalII II
3. PLT goalII II
4. BP goal - Correct Answers 1. 4.5 hrs
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2. <= 1.7 II II
3. >= 100K II II
4. SBP <185, DBP <110
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Aminoglycoside ideal PD targets - Correct Answers Cmax to MIC ratio of 8-10 (resulted
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in 90% clinical response in one study)
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Amount of rescue breaths during health care provider cardiac arrest - Correct Answers
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1 breath every 5 or 6 seconds
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II AmpC beta lactamases confer resistance to ___ II II II II II II
How could you know if the organism is derepressed and thus has sustained high-level
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production of ampC
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DOC for severe infections - Correct Answers penicillin, ampicillin, 1st gen
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cephalosporins
II
R to third-gen cephalosporins and broad-spectrum penicillins (piperacillin)
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Carbapenem or cefepime II II
An assessment of a practice model that may be within your health system or pharmacy
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that is compared with a best practice model - Correct Answers Gap analysis
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Appropriate insulin dose once DKA/HHS has resolved - Correct Answers 0.5-0.8
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units/kg SQ insulin
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At which point do you give antibiotics in pancreatic necrosis and which antibiotics do you
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use and duration - Correct Answers If a patient hasn't improved in 7-10 days
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Only carbapenems, fluoroquinolones, metronidazole, or high-dose cephalosporins due to
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penetration issues
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Up to 14 daysif infection confirmed
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Atracurium
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1. Metabolism
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2. DurationII
, 3. Unique adverse effects - Correct Answers 1. Hofmann elimination to form the toxic
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metabolite laudanosine which is then hepatically and renally cleared (may precipate
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seizure activity)
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2. 30-40 min
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3. Histamine release may cause cardiovascular adverse effects and bronchospasm
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Benefits of isavuconazole over vori and posa - Correct Answers Linear kinetics, 98%
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oral bioavailability, fewer drug-drug interactions, no QTc prolongation
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Besides supportive care of serotonin syndrome (i.e. BZDs for agitation, seizures, rigidity
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and direct-acting sympathomimetics for hypotension) what medications can actually
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block serotonin receptors implicated with serotonin syndrome? - Correct Answers
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Cyproheptadine 12-32 mg/24 hours (2mg Q2H)
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Chlorpromazine 50-100mg intramuscularly II II
II BP goals after SCI
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Options for treating hypotenstion
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Options for treating bradycardia - Correct Answers MAP 85-90 x 7 days
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flurocortisone or midodrine II II
pseudoephedrine or low-dose theophylline II II II
Bugs typically indicated in primary peritonitis (bacterial translocation of proximal small
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bowel overgrowth) - Correct Answers Usually monomicrobial - S. pneumo, E. coli,
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Klebsiella
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Bugs typically indicated in secondary peritonitis (macro- or microperforation of the GI
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tract), distal small bowel and large bowel - Correct Answers Same flora as proximal
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small bowel, in addition to anaerobes
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Bugs typically indicated in secondary peritonitis (macro- or microperforation of the GI
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tract), gastric and duodenal areas - Correct Answers Gram positive bacteria and
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candida
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Bugs typically indicated in secondary peritonitis (macro- or microperforation of the GI
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tract), proximal small bowel - Correct Answers Aerobic GNB (E. coli, Klebsiella,
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Proteus, Enterobacter), and aerobic GP (S. aureus, streptococci, enterococci)
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Carbapenemases are seen in ___ and confer resistance to ___. What are treatment
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options - Correct Answers acinetobacter, pseudomonas, enterobacteriaceae
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