Exam (elaborations)
HESI comprehensive practice exam 1 Practice Questions and Answers
HESI comprehensive practice exam 1
Practice Questions and Answers
A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit. Which
prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is least likely to exacerbate asthma? -
ANSWER-The best antihyp...
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HESI comprehensive practice exam 1
Practice Questions and Answers
A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit. Which
prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is least likely to exacerbate asthma? -
ANSWER✔✔-The best antihypertensive agent for clients with asthma is metoprolol (Lopressor) (C), a
beta2 blocking agent which is also cardioselective and less likely to cause bronchoconstriction. Pindolol
(A) is a beta2 blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction and increase asthmatic symptoms. Although
carteolol (B) is a beta blocking agent and an effective antihypertensive agent used in managing angina, it
can increase a client's risk for bronchoconstriction due to its nonselective beta blocker action.
Propranolol (D) also blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs, causing bronchoconstriction, and is not
indicated in clients with asthma and other obstructive pulmonary disorders.
A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse that the healthcare
provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has been normal for the past three
months. Which instruction should the nurse provide? - ANSWER✔✔-Although the healthcare provider
discontinued the propranolol, measures to prevent rebound cardiac excitation, such as progressively
reducing the dose over one to two weeks (C), should be recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia,
hypertension, and ventricular dysrhythmias. Abrupt cessation (A and B) of the beta-blocking agent may
precipitate tachycardia and rebound hypertension, so gradual weaning should be recommended. (D) is
not indicated.
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A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment
should the nurse make? - ANSWER✔✔-How long has the client been taking the medication?
Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine and with continued use becomes
less intense, so the length of time the client has been on the medication (A) provides information to
direct additional instruction. (B, C, and D) are not relevant.
The nurse is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client who is scheduled for a
cholecystectomy. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What
response is best for the nurse to provide? - ANSWER✔✔-Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication
should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric
client? - ANSWER✔✔-Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants (C), can
exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in the older client. Although tricyclic
antidepressants and antihistamines with opioids can exacerbate urinary retention, the concurrent use of
(A and B) with opioids do not. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents (D) can increase the risk for
bleeding, but do not increase urinary retention with opioids (D).
A client with osteoarthritis is given a new prescription for a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID).
The client asks the nurse, "How is this medication different from the acetaminophen I have been
taking?" Which information about the therapeutic action of NSAIDs should the nurse provide? -
ANSWER✔✔-Provide antiinflammatory response.
A client with cancer has a history of alcohol abuse and is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain. Which
organ function is most important for the nurse to monitor? - ANSWER✔✔-Acetaminophen and alcohol
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are both metabolized in the liver. This places the client at risk for hepatotoxicity, so monitoring liver (A)
function is the most important assessment because the combination of acetaminophen and alcohol,
even in moderate amounts, can cause potentially fatal liver damage. Other non-narcotic analgesics, such
as n onsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), are more likely to promote adverse renal effects (B).
Acetaminophen does not place the client at risk for toxic reactions related to (C or D).
The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to administering a scheduled
dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement? -
ANSWER✔✔-Administer the dose as prescribed.
Verapamil slows sinoatrial (SA) nodal automaticity, delays atrioventricular (AV) nodal conduction, which
slows the ventricular rate, and is used to treat atrial flutter, so (A) should be implemented, based on the
client's heart rate and blood pressure. (B and C) are not indicated. (D) delays the administration of the
scheduled dose.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes mellitus and influenza. Which
categories of illness should the nurse develop goals for the client's plan of care? - ANSWER✔✔-One
chronic and one acute illness.
Following an emergency Cesarean delivery, the nurse encourages the new mother to breastfeed her
newborn. The client asks why she should breastfeed now. Which information should the nurse provide? -
ANSWER✔✔-Stimulate contraction of the uterus.
Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a female client with severe
postpartum depression who is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit? - ANSWER✔✔-Supervised and
guided visits with infant.
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