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CompTIA CASP+ Security Architecture Test 4 with 100% Correct answers $8.49   Add to cart

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CompTIA CASP+ Security Architecture Test 4 with 100% Correct answers

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  • Course
  • CASP - Comptia Advanced Security Practitioner
  • Institution
  • CASP - Comptia Advanced Security Practitioner

What is the main purpose of data loss prevention (DLP) solutions? • A) To prevent unauthorized access to systems • B) To ensure data availability • C) To monitor and control data transfers to prevent unauthorized data leakage • Answer: C) To monitor and control data transfers to pre...

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  • October 26, 2024
  • 7
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • CASP - Comptia Advanced Security Practitioner
  • CASP - Comptia Advanced Security Practitioner
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CompTIA CASP+ Security Architecture Test 4 with 100% Correct answers


1. What is the main purpose of data loss prevention (DLP) solutions?

• A) To prevent unauthorized access to systems
• B) To ensure data availability
• C) To monitor and control data transfers to prevent unauthorized data leakage
• Answer: C) To monitor and control data transfers to prevent unauthorized data leakage
• Explanation: DLP solutions help organizations protect sensitive data from being shared or
transmitted inappropriately.

2. Which security principle involves limiting access to the minimum necessary for
a user to perform their job?

• A) Separation of duties
• B) Least privilege
• C) Defense in depth
• Answer: B) Least privilege
• Explanation: The principle of least privilege ensures that users only have the access necessary to
complete their tasks, reducing the risk of accidental or malicious misuse.

3. What is the primary function of a reverse proxy?

• A) To act as a gateway between users and web servers, providing anonymity and security
• B) To monitor network traffic for intrusions
• C) To serve static content to users
• Answer: A) To act as a gateway between users and web servers, providing anonymity and
security
• Explanation: A reverse proxy sits in front of web servers and forwards requests, enhancing
security and load balancing while obscuring server details from users.

4. What type of attack is designed to exploit human emotions to gain confidential
information?

• A) Phishing
• B) DoS
• C) SQL injection
• Answer: A) Phishing
• Explanation: Phishing attacks often use emotional triggers to trick individuals into providing
sensitive information, such as passwords or credit card numbers.

5. Which of the following technologies is commonly used to implement network
access control (NAC)?

, • A) Virtual Private Network (VPN)
• B) Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC)
• C) Firewalls
• Answer: B) Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC)
• Explanation: PNAC restricts access to the network based on the state of the device's port and
can enforce policies before granting network access.

6. What is the primary purpose of encryption in data transmission?

• A) To ensure data integrity
• B) To enhance data availability
• C) To protect data confidentiality during transmission
• Answer: C) To protect data confidentiality during transmission
• Explanation: Encryption secures data in transit by making it unreadable to unauthorized parties,
protecting its confidentiality.

7. Which of the following is an example of a physical security control?

• A) Intrusion detection system
• B) Surveillance cameras
• C) Access control policies
• Answer: B) Surveillance cameras
• Explanation: Surveillance cameras are physical security measures used to monitor and protect
premises against unauthorized access.

8. What is a significant benefit of using cloud computing for data storage?

• A) Reduced operational costs and enhanced scalability
• B) Complete control over data security
• C) Elimination of all security risks
• Answer: A) Reduced operational costs and enhanced scalability
• Explanation: Cloud computing allows organizations to scale their storage needs up or down
based on demand, often at a lower cost than maintaining on-premises infrastructure.

9. Which of the following best describes a zero-day vulnerability?

• A) A vulnerability that has been patched
• B) A newly discovered vulnerability that is not yet patched
• C) A vulnerability that is widely known
• Answer: B) A newly discovered vulnerability that is not yet patched
• Explanation: A zero-day vulnerability is one that is newly identified and for which no patch or fix
is available, posing significant security risks.

10. What is the primary goal of risk assessment?

• A) To eliminate all security threats
• B) To identify and prioritize risks to minimize impact

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