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ABFM ITE Exam Questions and Answers 100% Solved | Rated A+

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ABFM ITE Exam Questions and Answers 100% Solved | Rated A+ 1. A 68-year-old male presents to your office with a 2-day history of headache, muscle aches, and chills. His wife adds that his temperature has been up to 104.1°F and he seems confused sometimes. His symptoms have not improved with u...

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  • October 24, 2024
  • 137
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • ABFM
  • ABFM
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JOSHCLAY
©JOSHCLAY 2024/2025. YEAR PUBLISHED 2024.
ABFM ITE Exam Questions and Answers

100% Solved | Rated A+


1. A 68-year-old male presents to your office with a 2-day history of

headache, muscle aches, and chills. His wife adds that his temperature has

been up to 104.1°F and he seems confused sometimes. His symptoms

have not improved with usual care, including ibuprofen and increased fluid

intake. He and his wife returned from a cruise 10 days ago but don't recall

anyone having a similar illness on the ship. This morning he started to

cough and his wife was concerned because she saw some blood in his

sputum. He also states that he experiences intermittent shortness of breath

and feels nauseated. His blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, heart rate

98/min, temperature 39.4°C (102.9°F), and oxygen saturation 95% on room

air.

Which one of the following would be the preferred method to confirm your

suspected diagnosis of Legionnaires' disease?



A) Initiating azithromycin (Zithromax) to see if symptoms improve

,©JOSHCLAY 2024/2025. YEAR PUBLISHED 2024.
B) A chest radiograph

C - ✔✔ANSWER: E

A urine test for Legionella pneumophila antigen is the preferred method to

confirm Legionnaires' disease. This test is rapid and will only detect

Legionella pneumophila antigen. A sputum culture is the gold standard for

the diagnosis of Legionnaires' disease but it requires 48-72 hours. A chest

radiograph does not confirm the diagnosis but may show the extent of

disease. Responding to antibiotic treatment does not confirm a specific

diagnosis.

2. Which one of the following factors related to pregnancy and delivery

increases the risk of developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants?



A) A large-for-gestational age infant

B) Twin birth

C) Breech presentation

D) Cesarean delivery

E) Premature birth - ✔✔ANSWER: C

Risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants include a

breech presentation in the third trimester, regardless of whether the

delivery was cesarean or vaginal. Other indications to evaluate an infant for

,©JOSHCLAY 2024/2025. YEAR PUBLISHED 2024.
this condition include a positive family history, a history of previous clinical

instability, parental concern, a history of improper swaddling, and a

suspicious or inconclusive physical examination. Twin birth, a large-for-

gestational age infant, and prematurity are not considered risk factors.

3. A healthy 2-month-old female is brought to your office for a routine well

baby examination by both of her parents, who have no concerns. The

parents refuse routine recommended vaccines for their daughter because

of their personal beliefs.

You want to incorporate patient-centeredness and are also concerned

about improving the health of the population. You decide to follow the CDC

recommendations by



A) accepting their decision without further action

B) not offering vaccines at future visits to preserve a positive doctor-patient

relationship

C) having the parents sign a refusal to vaccinate form

D) dismissing the family from the practice

E) pursuing a court order for vaccine administration since the child has no

medical

exemptions - ✔✔ANSWER: C

, ©JOSHCLAY 2024/2025. YEAR PUBLISHED 2024.
Experts recommend that a refusal to vaccinate form be signed by patients

or parents who refuse a recommended vaccine. This form should

document that the patient/parents were provided the vaccine information

statement (SOR C). The CDC recommends against dismissing a patient or

family from a practice if they refuse vaccination. Physicians should continue

to discuss the benefits of immunizations at subsequent visits, because

some patients/parents may reconsider their decision not to vaccinate.

4. A 50-year-old male carpet layer presents with swelling of his right knee

proximal to the patella. He does not have any history of direct trauma,

fever, chills, or changes in the overlying skin. On examination the site is

swollen but minimally tender, with no warmth or erythema.

Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?



A) Rest, ice, and compression

B) Aspiration of fluid for analysis

C) Injection of a corticosteroid

D) An oral corticosteroid taper

E) Referral to an orthopedic surgeon for resection - ✔✔ANSWER: A

Prepatellar bursitis is a common superficial bursitis caused by microtrauma

from repeated kneeling and crawling. Other terms for this include

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