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NUR 405 Exam 1 questions with correct answers

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NUR 405 Exam 1 questions with correct answers

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  • October 21, 2024
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  • 2024/2025
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NUR 405 Exam 1 questions with correct answers
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing occasional feelings
of sadness because of the recent death of a beloved pet. The client's
appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine have not changed. How should
the nurse interpret the client's behaviors?
A. The client's behaviors demonstrate mental illness in the form of
depression.
B. The client's behaviors are extensive, which indicates the presence of
mental illness.
C. The client's behaviors are not congruent with cultural norms.
D. The client's behaviors demonstrate no functional impairment,
indicating no mental illness. Correct Answer-ANS: D
The nurse should assess that the client's daily functioning is not
impaired. The client who experiences feelings of sadness after the loss
of a pet is responding within normal expectations. Without significant
impairment, the client's distress does not indicate a mental illness.


2. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for
developing a mental disorder?
A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the
DSM-5 criteria
B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference
in daily functioning
C. When the client communicates significant distress
D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection Correct
Answer-ANS: B

,The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder
when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily
functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a
mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition,
emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the
psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental
functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant
distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities.
The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a
positive attribute


3. A nurse is assessing 15-year-old identical twins who respond very
differently to stress. One twin becomes anxious and irritable, while the
other withdraws and cries. How should the nurse explain these different
responses to stress to the parents?
A. Reactions to stress are relative rather than absolute; individual
responses to stress vary.
B. It is abnormal for identical twins to react differently to similar
stressors.
C. Identical twins should share the same temperament and respond
similarly to stress.
D. Environmental influences weigh more heavily than genetic influences
on reactions to stress. Correct Answer-ANS: A
Responses to stress are variable among individuals and may be
influenced by perception, past experience, and environmental factors in
addition to genetic factors.


4. A client has a history of excessive drinking, which has led to multiple
arrests for driving under the influence (DUI). The client states, "I work

,hard to provide for my family. I don't see why I can't drink to relax." The
nurse recognizes the use of which defense mechanism?
A. Projection
B. Rationalization
C. Regression
D. Sublimation Correct Answer-ANS: B
The nurse should recognize that the client is using rationalization, a
common defense mechanism. The client is attempting to make excuses
and create logical reasons to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors.


5. Which client should the nurse anticipate to be most receptive to
psychiatric treatment?
A. A Jewish, female journalist
B. A Baptist, homeless male
C. A Catholic, black male
D. A Protestant, Swedish business executive Correct Answer-ANS: A
The nurse should anticipate that the client of Jewish culture would place
a high importance on preventative health care and would consider
mental health as equally important as physical health. Women are also
more likely than men to seek treatment for mental health problems.


6. A new psychiatric nurse states, "This client's use of defense
mechanisms should be eliminated." Which is a correct evaluation of this
nurse's statement?
A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and
need not be eliminated.

, B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt of the ego to manage
anxiety and should always be eliminated.
C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity,
should be discouraged and not eliminated.
D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be
fostered and encouraged. Correct Answer-ANS: A
The nurse should know that defense mechanisms serve the purpose of
reducing anxiety during times of stress. A client with no defense
mechanisms may have a lower tolerance for stress, predisposing him or
her to anxiety disorders. Defense mechanisms should be confronted
when they impede the client from developing healthy coping skills.


7. During an intake assessment, a nurse asks both physiological and
psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, "I'm here for my
heart, not my head problems." Which is the nurse's best response?
A. "It's just a routine part of our assessment. All clients are asked these
same questions."
B. "Why are you concerned about these types of questions?"
C. "Psychological factors, like excessive stress, have been found to
affect medical conditions."
D. "We can skip these questions, if you like. It isn't imperative that we
complete this section." Correct Answer-ANS: C
The nurse should attempt to educate the client on the negative effects of
excessive stress on medical conditions. It is not appropriate to skip either
physiological or psychosocial questions, as this would lead to an
inaccurate assessment.

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