Exam (elaborations)
HESI: Maternity & Women's Health Exam| Questions & Essays with 100% Verified Answers
- Course
- Institution
HESI: Maternity & Women's Health Exam| Questions & Essays with 100% Verified Answers
[Show more]
Seller
Follow
Content preview
HESI: Maternity & Women's Health Exam|Questions & Essays with 100% Verified
Answers
A primigravida at 38 weeks' gestation presents to the clinic with a blood pressure of 142/94,
edema in all extremities, and a weight gain of 5 lb (2.3 kilograms) since the previous checkup 1
week ago. The decision has been made to initiate magnesium sulfate therapy. What are the
nursing priorities with this choice of therapy? Select all that apply. - ✔️✔️Incorrect1
Respiratory rate of 14
Incorrect2
Blood pressure drop to 126/80
Correct3
Magnesium sulfate level of 9 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L)
Correct4
Calcium gluconate available at bedside
Correct5
Oxytocin used to strengthen contractions
Correct6
Client on left side in darkened room with visitor restrictions
A magnesium sulfate level of 9 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L) is too high; the therapeutic level is 4 to 8
mg/dL (1.74 to 3.48 mmol/L). Calcium gluconate is an antagonist to magnesium and must be
available immediately with this therapy. Magnesium inhibits contractions, so oxytocin often is
used to strengthen contractions toward the goal of delivery, a concern in relation to the fetus
tolerating labor. Maintaining the client on the left side with minimal stimuli will decrease the
chance of a seizure and thus is a nursing concern. A respiratory rate of 14 is within normal
limits. Respirations can be diminished and must be maintained above 10/min. A decrease of
blood pressure to 126/80 can be attributed to the magnesium, which has the primary purpose
of preventing convulsions.
,A client who is having a difficult labor is found to have cephalopelvic disproportion. Which
prescription should the nurse question? - ✔️✔️Maintain nothing by mouth (NPO) status.
2
Start a peripheral intravenous (IV) drip of 25% normal saline.
3
Record fetal heart tones every 15 minutes.
Correct4
Piggyback another 10-unit bag of oxytocin.
When there is cephalopelvic disproportion, a cesarean birth is indicated; infusing oxytocin at
this time could result in fetal compromise and uterine rupture. The NPO status is appropriate in
anticipation of a cesarean birth. A peripheral IV is needed not only for hydration but also for
venous access if IV medications become necessary. The client probably has an electronic
monitor recording the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions; the findings of these
assessments should be documented regularly in accordance with hospital protocol.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of preeclampsia. Which significant clinical finding does the
nurse expect when reviewing the client's history? - ✔️✔️Correct1
Proteinuria
2
Tachycardia
3
Increased serum glucose
Incorrect4
Tonic-clonic movements
A characteristic of preeclampsia is vasospasms that cause renal injury, resulting in loss of
protein in the urine. The maternal heart rate is not affected by preeclampsia. An increased
serum glucose level is associated with uncontrolled diabetes, not preeclampsia. There are no
data to indicate that the client had or is having a seizure. The admitting diagnosis is
preeclampsia, not eclampsia.
,Which clinical finding is most important for the nurse to assess if a client has had a precipitous
birth? - ✔️✔️1
Sudden chilling
Correct2
Profuse bleeding
3
Decrease in heart rate
Incorrect4
Increased blood pressure
A precipitate birth may be injurious to both mother and neonate. The maternal morbidity rate
is increased by hemorrhage and/or an infection resulting from the trauma of a rapid, forceful
birth in a contaminated field. Sudden chilling is common to all clients after all types of birth; the
exact cause is unknown. If the client is bleeding profusely, she should be observed for shock,
which is evidenced by a weak, rapid pulse. Increased blood pressure may be a result of the use
of oxytocin or preeclampsia, not precipitous birth.
A client in labor is admitted to the birthing unit 20 hours after her membranes have ruptured.
Which complication should the nurse anticipate when assessing the character of the client's
amniotic fluid? - ✔️✔️1
Cord prolapse
2
Placenta previa
Correct3
Maternal sepsis
4
Abruptio placentae
, Prolonged rupture of membranes of more than 18 hours increases the risk of maternal and
newborn sepsis. The amniotic fluid must be assessed for color, viscosity, and odor; thick,
yellow-stained, cloudy fluid with a foul odor indicates infection. Cord prolapse usually occurs
shortly after the membranes rupture; it is unlikely that it will occur 20 hours after the
membranes have ruptured. Placenta previa is an abnormally implanted placenta; it is unrelated
to ruptured membranes. Abruptio placentae is premature separation of a normally implanted
placenta; it, too, is unrelated to ruptured membranes.
A client tells a nurse in the prenatal clinic that she has vaginal staining but no pain. Her history
reveals amenorrhea for the last 2 months and pregnancy confirmation after her first missed
period. What type of abortion is suspected? - ✔️✔️1
Missed
2
Inevitable
Correct3
Threatened
Incorrect4
Incomplete
Spotting in the first trimester may indicate that the client is having a threatened abortion; any
client with the possibility of hemorrhage should not be left alone, so her admission to the
hospital helps ensure her safety. A missed abortion may not cause any outward signs or
symptoms, except that the signs of pregnancy disappear. An inevitable abortion can be
confirmed only if vaginal examination reveals cervical dilation. With an incomplete abortion
some, but not all, of the products of conception have been expelled.
A client with mild preeclampsia is admitted to the high-risk prenatal unit because of a
progressive increase in her blood pressure. The nurse reviews the primary healthcare provider's
prescriptions. Which prescriptions does the nurse expect to receive for this client? Select all
that apply. - ✔️✔️Correct1
Daily weight
Correct2
The benefits of buying summaries with Stuvia:
Guaranteed quality through customer reviews
Stuvia customers have reviewed more than 700,000 summaries. This how you know that you are buying the best documents.
Quick and easy check-out
You can quickly pay through credit card or Stuvia-credit for the summaries. There is no membership needed.
Focus on what matters
Your fellow students write the study notes themselves, which is why the documents are always reliable and up-to-date. This ensures you quickly get to the core!
Frequently asked questions
What do I get when I buy this document?
You get a PDF, available immediately after your purchase. The purchased document is accessible anytime, anywhere and indefinitely through your profile.
Satisfaction guarantee: how does it work?
Our satisfaction guarantee ensures that you always find a study document that suits you well. You fill out a form, and our customer service team takes care of the rest.
Who am I buying these notes from?
Stuvia is a marketplace, so you are not buying this document from us, but from seller Examcheatcode. Stuvia facilitates payment to the seller.
Will I be stuck with a subscription?
No, you only buy these notes for $13.49. You're not tied to anything after your purchase.
Can Stuvia be trusted?
4.6 stars on Google & Trustpilot (+1000 reviews)
79373 documents were sold in the last 30 days
Founded in 2010, the go-to place to buy study notes for 14 years now
