1. Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for balance and coordination?
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Brainstem
D) Thalamus
Answer: B) Cerebellum
Rationale: The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating voluntary movements, balance, and posture.
____________________________________...
1. Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for balance and coordination?
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Brainstem
D) Thalamus
Answer: B) Cerebellum
Rationale: The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating voluntary movements, balance, and
posture.
2. A patient presents with difficulty speaking and understanding language. Which area of
the brain is likely affected?
A) Occipital lobe
B) Broca's area
C) Hippocampus
D) Amygdala
Answer: B) Broca's area
Rationale: Broca's area is responsible for speech production; damage can lead to expressive
aphasia.
3. Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?
A) III
B) IV
C) II
D) VI
Answer: C) II
Rationale: The optic nerve (Cranial Nerve II) is responsible for transmitting visual information
from the retina to the brain.
4. A patient with multiple sclerosis is experiencing muscle weakness. Which
neurotransmitter is most likely affected?
,A) Dopamine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Serotonin
Answer: B) Acetylcholine
Rationale: In multiple sclerosis, the demyelination of nerves affects the transmission of
impulses, particularly those mediated by acetylcholine.
5. What is the primary function of the sympathetic nervous system?
A) Rest and digest
B) Fight or flight
C) Sensory processing
D) Memory storage
Answer: B) Fight or flight
Rationale: The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for stressful situations by
increasing heart rate and blood flow to muscles.
6. A patient with a spinal cord injury at the T6 level is at risk for which of the following
complications?
A) Cerebral edema
B) Autonomic dysreflexia
C) Spinal shock
D) Hydrocephalus
Answer: B) Autonomic dysreflexia
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia can occur in individuals with injuries above T6 and can lead
to severe hypertension.
7. Which test is most appropriate for evaluating a patient’s neurological function?
A) MRI
B) CBC
C) Blood glucose
D) X-ray
, Answer: A) MRI
Rationale: MRI is a non-invasive imaging technique that provides detailed images of brain
structures and abnormalities.
8. A patient presents with a tremor and rigidity. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Parkinson’s disease
C) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D) Myasthenia gravis
Answer: B) Parkinson’s disease
Rationale: Parkinson’s disease is characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia due to the
degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons.
9. During a neurological assessment, the nurse tests the patient’s cranial nerve function.
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Answer: A) I
Rationale: The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) is responsible for the sense of smell.
10. What is the primary role of the myelin sheath?
A) To transmit signals
B) To protect nerve endings
C) To speed up impulse conduction
D) To produce neurotransmitters
Answer: C) To speed up impulse conduction
Rationale: The myelin sheath insulates nerve fibers and increases the speed of electrical
impulses along the axon.
NCLEX-Style Questions on the Nervous System (Continued)
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