NAVLE EXAM 2024/2025 WITH 100%
ACCURATE SOLUTIONS
A 1 year-old Thoroughbred stallion is presented with difficulty walking for the
past week.
Examination reveals ataxia in the pelvic limbs and there is a tendency for him to
overreach in all four limbs when ambulating.
Which one of the following choices is the most common cause of these signs in the
horse?
A - Tetanus
B - Botulism
C - Cervical vertebral malformation/malarticulation
D - Lead toxicity
E - Occipitoatlantoaxial malformation/malarticulation - Precise Answer ✔✔...
A 1-year old female spayed Doberman Pinscher has presented after being hit by a
car. Initial chest radiographs show mild contusions, and the patient appears to be
otherwise stable. A right mid-shaft long oblique femoral fracture has been
identified. Routine pre-operative blood work is unremarkable. A buccal mucosal
bleeding test (BMBT) is elevated at 6 minutes. What will you administer prior to
surgery?
Whole blood transfusion
Vitamin K
Desmopressin acetate
,1,25 dihydrocholecalciferol - Precise Answer ✔✔The correct answer is
desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). Administration of desmopressin results in release
of von Willebrand factor, which will help this patient with clotting. Given this
dog's breed and elevated BMBT there is a very strong likelihood she is afflicted
with von Willebrand's disease. In Dobermans this results in an inability to form a
clot. This can be life threatening if the dog is taken to surgery.
A whole blood transfusion does not provide an adequate source of von Willebrand
factor but may be necessary if the patient's bleeding cannot be controlled despite
appropriate pre-operative measures. 1,25 dihydrocholecalciferol is the active form
of vitamin D which aids intestinal resorption of calcium. The BMBT does not
assess factors 2, 7, 9, or 10 and therefore vitamin K is not indicated.
A 10-year old Golden Retriever has presented for a progressive onset of exercise
intolerance and voice change. On physical exam the patient is noted to have a 7/9
body condition score. Mucous membranes are pink. Capillary refill time is less
than 2 seconds. Lung sounds are clear bilaterally. Stridorous breathing is noted on
inspiration. Laryngeal paralysis is suspected and a sedated laryngeal exam has
been recommended. The owner agrees to routine blood work, chest radiographs,
and a laryngeal examination. Which of the following medications will help assist
in evaluation of laryngeal function?
Propofol
Dopamine
Ketamine
Doxapram
Diphenhydramine - Precise Answer ✔✔Doxapram is a central nervous stimulant
that has effects on respiratory centers. It is thought that it may work by stimulating
the reflex activation of carotid and aortic chemoreceptors. At one point, it was used
in critical care patients during resuscitation efforts; however, this has fallen out of
favor since doxapram results in increased work associated with respiration without
an increased amount of arterial oxygenation. When performing a laryngeal exam,
the goal is to have the patient just deep enough so you can perform a laryngeal
exam. Injectable anesthetics such as thiopental or propofol are used. Overzealous
,administration of these can result in a false diagnosis of laryngeal paralysis and it
is therefore recommended to administer Doxapram to help stimulate respiration
and definitively confirm your diagnosis.
Ketamine is an NMDA antagonist and can result in increased jaw tone as well as
overall muscle tone. Although its cardiopulmonary effects are minimal, it does not
stimulate respiration.
Dopamine is a precursor to norepinephrine and acts on alpha and beta-1 receptors.
It is typically used in critical care settings to help increase blood pressure.
Diphenhydramine is the antihistamine also known as Benadryl. It competitively
inhibits histamine at H1 receptors. Along with its antihistamine properties, it has
sedative and anti-tussive effects.
Propofol is a rapid acting injectable anesthetic which can result in hypotension,
bradycardia, and apnea.
A 10-year old male castrated domestic short hair presents for lethargy. A blood
smear shows Heinz bodies in the erythrocytes, and the blood is grossly brown in
color. Which of the following is responsible for causing these changes in the blood
of this cat?
Chocolate toxicity
Lily ingestion
Aspirin administration
Acetaminophen administration
Rodenticide toxicity - Precise Answer ✔✔Explanation - The correct answer is
acetaminophen administration. The cat has signs of methemoglobinemia, which is
caused by oxidative damage to the hemoglobin. Heinz bodies are usually present in
, animals with methemoglobinemia. Acetaminophen causes oxidative damage to cat
blood due to the cat's inability to metabolize the drug efficiently.
A 13-year old male castrated domestic long hair presents for polyphagia, weight
loss, and vomiting. The owner notes that the cat appears restless, more active, and
more aggressive than before. Which test would diagnose the most likely cause for
these signs?
Liver panel
Gastroduodenoscopy and biopsy
Abdominal ultrasound
Renal panel and urinalysis
Serum T4 - Precise Answer ✔✔Serum T4
Explanation - The correct answer is serum T4. This cat is most likely hyperthyroid.
Polyphagia, weight loss, and hyperactivity are classical clinical signs in a cat with
hyperthyroidism. Other signs might include a dull haircoat, PU/PD, vomiting,
diarrhea, and aggression. Lethargy, anorexia, and weakness are uncommon but can
occur in a condition apathetic hypothyroidism.
A 2 year old male castrated Boxer presents for exercise intolerance and syncopal
episodes. Cardiac auscultation reveals a 4/6 left systolic murmur heard best at the
base of the heart. Thoracic radiographs show a mildly enlarged left ventricle and
left atrium, and segmental enlargement of the ascending aorta. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
Boxer cardiomyopathy
Myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve
Pulmonic stenosis
Aortic stenosis - Precise Answer ✔✔Explanation - The correct answer is aortic
stenosis. The breed, clinical history of syncope, radiographic findings, and
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