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Patho Hesi Exam Questions With Verified Answers.

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©BRAINBARTER 2024/2025 Patho Hesi Exam Questions With Verified Answers. Following routine colonoscopy screening, a client is told that he had several polyps removed. The client began crying stating, "I just can't deal with cancer. I'm too young." The nurse responds: A) "Don't worry. We have ...

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  • October 2, 2024
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  • 2024/2025
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  • PATHO HESI
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Patho Hesi Exam Questions With Verified
Answers.




Following routine colonoscopy screening, a client is told that he had several polyps removed.
The client began crying stating, "I just can't deal with cancer. I'm too young." The nurse
responds:
A) "Don't worry. We have some great cancer doctors on staff. I'm sure chemo will help you fight
it."
B) "Maybe if you're lucky, they have stopped it from metastasizing to your liver."
C) "A simple intestinal surgery will cure you."
D) "Most colon polyps are not cancerous. The biopsy results will direct your care." -
answer✔Ans: D


Feedback:A polyp is a growth that projects from a mucosal surface, such as the intestine.
Although the term usually implies a benign neoplasm, some malignant tumors also appear as
polyps. Adenomatous polyps are considered precursors to adenocarcinomas of the colon.
A lung biopsy and magnetic resonance imaging have confirmed the presence of a benign lung
tumor in a client. Which of the following characteristics is associated with this client's neoplasm?
A) The tumor will grow by expansion and is likely encapsulated.
B) The cells that constitute the tumor are undifferentiated, with atypical structure.
C) If left untreated, the client's tumor is likely to metastasize.

D) The tumor is likely to infiltrate the lung tissue that presently surrounds it. - answer✔Ans: A
A polyp is a growth that projects from
Feedback:

, ©BRAINBARTER 2024/2025


Benign neoplasms typically grow by expansion rather than invasion. As well, they are usually
contained within a fibrous capsule. Malignant tumors are associated with undifferentiated cells,
metastasis, and infiltration of surrounding tissue.
A newly diagnosed lung cancer client asks how his tumor spread (metastasized) so fast without
displaying many signs/symptoms. The nurse responds that malignant tumors affect area tissues
by:
A) Increasing tissue blood flow
B) Providing essential nutrients
C) Liberating enzymes and toxins


Ans: C Feedback: Malignant tumors affect area tissues by liberating enzymes and toxins that
destroy tumor tissue and normal tissue. In addition, the malignant cells compress area vessels,
causing ischemia and tissue necrosis. The high metabolic rate of tumor growth causes the tumor
to deprive the normal tissues of essential nutrients.D) Forming fibrous membranes -
answer✔Ans: C


Feedback: Malignant tumors affect area tissues by liberating enzymes and toxins that destroy
tumor tissue and normal tissue. In addition, the malignant cells compress area vessels, causing
ischemia and tissue necrosis. The high metabolic rate of tumor growth causes the tumor to
deprive the normal tissues of essential nutrients.
A client had a positive Pap smear. The surgeon diagnosed "cancer in situ of the cervix." The
client asks, "What does this mean?" From the following statements, which is most appropriate in
response to this question? The tumor has:
A) Been walled off within a strong fibrous capsule
B) Developed a distant infiltration
C) Not crossed the basement membrane, so it can be surgically removed with little chance of
growing back
D) Grown undifferentiated cells that no longer look like the tissue from which it arose -
answer✔Ans: C


Feedback: Cancer in situ is a localized preinvasive lesion. As an example, in breast ductal
carcinoma, in situ the cells have not crossed the basement membrane. Depending on its location,

, ©BRAINBARTER 2024/2025


an in situ lesion usually can be removed surgically or treated so that the chances of recurrence
are small. For example, cancer in situ of the cervix is essentially 100% curable
While studying to become chemo-certified, the nurse reviews some basic concepts about cancer
cells. When a client asks about why the tumor grows so fast, the nurse will respond based on
which of the following physiological principles? Select all that apply.
A) Cancer cells have shorter cell cycle times than normal cells.
B) Cancer cells do not die when they are programmed to die.
C) Growth factors prevents cancer cells from entering resting (G0) cell cycle phase.
D) Cancer cells will reach a balance between cell birth and cell death rate.

E) Cancer cells never reach a flattened growth rate. - answer✔Ans: B, C


Feedback: One of the reasons cancerous tumors often seem to grow so rapidly relates to the size
of the cell pool that is actively engaged in cycling. It has been shown that the cell cycle time of
cancerous tissue cells is not necessarily shorter than that of normal cells. Rather, cancer cells do
not die on schedule, and growth factors prevent cells from exiting the cell cycle and entering the
G0 or noncycling phase. The ratio of dividing cells to resting cells in a tissue mass is called the
growth fraction. The doubling time is the length of time it takes for the total mass of cells in a
tumor to double. As the growth fraction increases, the doubling time decreases. When normal
tissues reach their adult size, an equilibrium between cell birth and cell death is reached. Cancer
cells, however, continue to divide until limitations in blood supply and nutrients inhibit their
growth. When this occurs, the doubling time for cancer cells decreases. The initial growth rate is
exponential and then tends to decrease or flatten out over time.
Although growth rate is variable among types of bacteria, the growth of bacteria is dependent on:
A) Biofilm communication
B) Availability of nutrients
C) An intact protein capsid

D) Individual cell motility - answer✔Ans: B


Feedback:
Bacterial growth is dependent upon the availability of nutrients and physical growth conditions.
Bacteria prefer to colonize as biofilm and communicate with other bacteria within the biofilm,

, ©BRAINBARTER 2024/2025


but biofilm is not necessary for growth. Viruses (not bacteria) form a capsid. Although some
bacteria have projections for motility, these are not necessary for growth.
Which of the following outpatients are at a greater risk for developing Treponema pallidum, the
cause of syphilis? Select all that apply.
A) A homeless adolescent female performing oral sex for money
B) A male who frequents clubs catering to exotic dancers and sexual favors
C) A homosexual male couple who have had a monogamous relationship for the past 20 years
D) An older adult female living in a condominium who regularly has sex with three to four
different men/week - answer✔Ans: A, B, D
Feedback:
Treponema pallidum is a sexually transmitted infection that is spread by direct physical contact.
The Borrelia type of spirochete is spread from animals to humans through lice or tick bites.
Leptospira spirochetes spread from animals to humans through contact with infected animal
urine. Spirochetes are anaerobic; therefore, they would not invade the host through oxygen-filled
aerobic lungs.
Chlamydiaceae have characteristics of both viruses and bacteria and are a rather common
sexually transmitted infectious organism. After entry into the host, they transform into a
reticulate body. The health care provider should monitor which of the following clients for this
possible infection? Select all that apply.
A) An adult male who raises a number of exotic birds in his home
B) A drug abuser looking to share needles/syringes
C) A newborn with a noticeable eye infection

D) A teenager who swims in the lake regularly - answer✔Ans: A, B, C
Feedback:
Chlamydiaceae are in the form of an elementary body when infectious and outside of the host
cell. Once an organism enters the cell, it transforms into a large reticulate body. This undergoes
active replication into multiple elementary bodies, which are then shed into the extracellular
environment to initiate another infectious cycle. Chlamydial diseases of humans include sexually
transmitted genital infections (Chlamydophila trachomatis); ocular infections and pneumonia of
newborns (C. trachomatis); upper and lower respiratory tract infections in children, adolescents,
and young adults (Chlamydophila pneumoniae); and respiratory disease acquired from infected
birds (Chlamydophila psittaci).

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