Pharmacology HESI V2 Preparation 280 Latest
Update 2024-2025 Actual Exam 280 Questions
and 100% Correct Answers Guaranteed A+
A charge nurse is planning a staff education session to discuss medications appropriate
for the use during the care of a client experiencing alcohol detoxification. Which of the
following should the charge nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A. Lorazepam
B. Diazepam
C. Disulfiram
D. Naltrexone
E. Acamprosate - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: A, B
Lorazepam and diazepam are benzodiazepines used during alcohol detoxification to
decrease anxiety and reduce the risk for seizures.
Disulfiram and naltrexone are administered to assist the client in maintaining abstinence
from alcohol following detoxification. Acamprosate decreases unpleasant effects, such
as anxiety or restlessness, resulting from abstinence.
A client has a new prescription for brimonidine ophthalmic, one drop three times a day.
He tells the nurse he also wears soft contact lenses and wants to know whether he can
put the drops in his eyes with the lenses in place. Which of the following should the
nurse tell this client?
A. "Go ahead and put the drops in your eye with the contact lens in place."
B. "Take the contact lens out of your eye, then instill the eye drop, and immediately
reinsert the contact lens."
C. "Take the contact lens out of your eye, then instill the eye drop, and wait at least 15
minutes before putting the contact lens back in place."
D. "You will need to discontinue the use of contact lenses while using brimonidine eye
drops." - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: C
The client can continue to wear his contacts. He should instill the medication and wait at
least 15 mins.
,Contact lenses absorb brimonidine.
A client is admitted to undergo a surgical procedure. the nurse should be aware that
which of the following preexisting conditions may be a contraindication for the use of
ketamine as an IV anesthetic for this client?
A. PUD
B. Breast cancer
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Schizophrenia - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: D
Ketamine can produce psychological effects such as hallucinations. Therefore,
schizophrenia can be contraindicated for use of ketamine.
A client is prescribed long-term use of oral prednisone for treatment of chronic asthma.
the nurse should instruct the client to watch for which of the following?
A. Weight gain and fluid retention
B. Nervousness and insomnia
C. Chest pain and tachycardia
D. Dry mouth and constipation - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: A
Weight gain and fluid retention are adverse effects of oral prednisone due to the effect
of sodium and water retention.
Nervousness and insomnia, and angina and tachycardia, are adverse effects of beta
agonists, not glucocorticoids. Dry mouth and constipation are adverse effects of
tiotropium.
A client is prescribed phenobarbital sodium (Luminal) for a seizure disorder. The
medication has a long half-life of 4 days. Based on this half-life, the medication will most
likely be prescribed
A. once a day.
B. twice a day.
,C. three times a day.
D. four times a day. - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: A
Medication with long half-lives remain at their therapeutic levels between doses for long
periods of time. Therefore, this medication can be administered once a day.
A client taking sucralfate PO for PUD has been started on phenytoin to control seizures.
Which of the following should be included in the client's teaching?
A. Take both of these medications at the same time.
B. Take sucralfate with a glass of milk.
C. Allow a 2-hr interval between these medications.
D. Chew the sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing. - CORRECT ANSWER:
CORRECT ANSWER: C
Sucralfate can interfere with absorption of phenytoin, so the client should allow a 2-hr
interval between sucralfate and phenytoin.
Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach and swallowed whole.
A client who has increased intracranial pressure is receiving mannitol. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL
B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
C. Dyspnea
D. Headache - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: C
Dyspnea can indicate heart failure, an adverse effect of mannitol.
The urine output is adequate, however, kidney failure is an adverse effect of mannitol
for which the nurse should continue to monitor. A headache is a manifestation of
increased intracranial pressure. Mannitol is given to draw fluid back into the vascular
and extravascular space, which can relieve the headache.
, A nurse educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence medication
metabolism with a group of nurses. Medication dosages may need to be decreased for
which of the following reasons? (Select all that apply.)
A. Increased renal excretion
B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes
C. Liver failure
D. Peripheral vascular disease
E. Concurrent use of medication metabolized by the same pathway - CORRECT
ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: C, E
Liver failure decreases metabolism and thus increase the concentration of medication.
This may require decreasing the dosage of medication. When two medications are
metabolized in the same way, they may compete for metabolism, thereby increasing the
concentration of one or both medications.
Increased renal excretion may decrease concentration of the medication, requiring
increased dosage. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes can decrease the
concentration of the medication. The dose might need increased. Peripheral vascular
disease may impair distribution, and more of the medication may be needed.
A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should contact the provider
about a potential contraindication to a medication for which of the following clients?
(Select all that apply.)
A. A client at 8 weeks of gestation who asks for an influenza immunization.
B. A client who takes prednisone and has a possible fungal infection.
C. A client who has chronic liver disease and reports he is taking hydrocodone.
D. A client who has PUD and takes sucralfate and tells the nurse she has started taking
OTC aluminum hydroxide.
E. A client who has a prosthetic heart valve who takes warfarin and reports a suspected
pregnancy. - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: B, C, E
Glucocorticoids should not be taken by a client who has possible systemic fungal
infection. Acetaminophen is contraindicated due to toxicity for the client who has a liver
disorder. Warfarin is a Pregnancy Category X medication, which can cause severe birth
defects in a fetus.
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