NR 565 - ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY MIDTERM –
CHAMBERLAIN
During what trimester is a pregnant woman most at risk for adverse drug reactions with
potential long term consequences? - Answers-1st trimester (fetus most at risk d/t rapid
growth)
What is BEERS criteria? - Answers-Recommendations of medications inappropriate for
elderly (65 and older), prescriber ultimately decides
What is the CYP450 (cytochrome P450) - Answers-liver enzyme system where
medications are metabolized, can either be inducers or inhibitors and create drug-drug
interactions
CYP450 inducers - Answers-Speed up metabolism of drugs (drug is cleared faster),
drug has lesser effect (decrease blood levels of drug), elevate CYP450 enzymes
Physiological changes during pregnancy that impact pharmacodynamics and
pharmacokinetic properties of drugs? - Answers-increase glomerular filtration rate leads
to increase durg excretion
increase hepatic metabolism
decrease tone and motility of bowel
increase drug absorption
Examples of medications that can be teratogenic - Answers-Antiepileptic drugs,
antimicrobials such as tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones, vitamin A in large doses,
some anticoagulants, and hormonal medications such as diethylstilbestrol (DES).
How is absorption of intramuscular medications different in neonates? - Answers-slow
and erratic due to low blood flow in muscles first few days of life
,Why is absorption of medication in the stomach increased in infancy? - Answers-
delayed gastric emptying
Some medications that should be avoided in the pediatric patient? - Answers-
glucocorticoids, discoloration of developing teeth with tetracyclines, and kernicterus with
sulfonamides, levofloxacin (antibiotics)
aspirin (Severe intoxication from acute overdose)
what should be included in medication administration patient education? - Answers-
dosage size and timing
route and technique of administration
duration of treatment
drug storage
nature and time course of desired responses
nature and time course of adverse responses
finish taking antibiotic
What are some things that put the elderly patient at higher risk for adverse drug
reactions? - Answers-reduced renal function
polypharmacy (the use of five or more medications daily)
greater severity of illness
presence of comorbidities
use of drugs that have a low therapeutic index (e.g., digoxin)
increased individual variation secondary to altered pharmacokinetics
inadequate supervision of long-term therapy
poor patient adherence
How can healthcare providers decrease likelihood of an elderly patient experiencing an
adverse drug reaction? - Answers-obtaining a thorough drug history that includes over-
the-counter medications
considering pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamics changes due to age
monitoring the patient's clinical response and plasma drug levels
using the simplest regimen possible
monitoring for drug-drug interactions and iatrogenic illness
periodically reviewing the need for continued drug therapy
encouraging the patient to dispose of old medications
taking steps to promote adherence and to avoid drugs on the Beers list
How can we promote medication adherence with elderly patients? - Answers-simplifying
drug regimens
providing clear and concise verbal and written instructions
using an appropriate dosage form
clearly labeling and dispensing easy-to-open containers
developing daily reminders
monitoring frequently
affordability of drugs
, support systems
Why do nitrates need to be taken no later than 4 PM? - Answers-Need nitrate free
interval so tolerance doesn't develop
Nine factors that impact outcome of medication? - Answers-Gender and race
Genetics and pharmacogenomics
Variability in absorption
placebo effect
Tolerance
patho
age
bodyweight
Do you need informed consent for genetic testing? - Answers-yes
What is the purpose of the Genetic Information Non-Discriminatory Act? - Answers-
Protects patients from discrimination by employers and insurance providers based on
genetic information
Difference between practice authority and prescriptive authority? - Answers-Practice
authority refers to the nurse practitioner's ability to practice without physician oversight,
whereas prescriptive authority refers to the nurse practitioner's authority to prescribe
medications independently and without limitations.
Who regulates prescriptive authority? - Answers-the jurisdiction of a health professional
board. This may be the State Board of Nursing, the State Board of Medicine, or the
State Board of Pharmacy, as determined by each state.
What is scope of practice determined by? - Answers-is determined by state practice and
licensure laws.
What is full practice authority? - Answers-Nurse practitioners have the autonomy to
evaluate patients, diagnose, order and interpret tests, initiate and manage treatments
and prescribe medications, including controlled substances without physician oversight.
What is reduced practice authority? - Answers-Nurse practitioners are limited in at least
one element of practice. The state requires a formal collaborative agreement with an
outside health discipline for the nurse practitioner to provide patient care. ex/ physician
involvement for 5 yrs than independent
What is restricted practice authority? - Answers-Nurse practitioners are limited in at
least one element of practice by requiring supervision, delegation, or team management
by an outside health discipline for the nurse practitioner to provide patient care.-
typically doctor on site
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