NUR 2063 Pathophysiology Rasmussen
College Final Exam
Explain primary prevention - correct answer Preventing"; altering susceptibility or reducing
exposure of disease for people
Explain secondary prevention - correct answer "Screening"; early detection, screening, and
management of disease to catch disease early before it spreads
Explain tertiary prevention - correct answer "Treating" and preventing further complications
from a disorder or disease after the person has the condition
What are examples of primary prevention? - correct answer Vaccinations and Handwashing
What are examples of secondary prevention? - correct answer PAP smears for STDs, lab work
for HBA1C check, mammogram
What are examples of tertiary prevention? - correct answer Rehab for hip surgery, relearning
ADL's after amputation, Wound care after stroke to prevent pressure ulcer
What happens to the body during the sympathetic phase of the flight or fight response? -
correct answer Pupils dilate, salivation inhibited, increase in HR, bronchodilation of airway,
increased respirations, glucose release, inhibit GI/GU.
What happens to the body during the parasympathetic phase of the flight or light response? -
correct answer Rest and Digest. Pupils constrict, salivation occurs, decreased HR,
bronchoconstriction,decreased respiration, GI/GU systems resume action
Explain the role of the nucleus - correct answer control center of the cell, where DNA and
genes are stored, produces mRNA to help build body proteins
Explain the role of the mitochondria - correct answer Powerhouse of the cell. Provides energy
in ATP, and has its own set of DNA
Explain the role of the ribosome - correct answer produces RNA to produce proteins through
transcriptions of DNA and translation of RNA into a protein
Explain the role of the lysosomes - correct answer helps breakdown and digest dead cells,
organelles, or tissues
Explain the role of the rough ER - correct answer folded membranes that move proteins
around the cell. Has ribosomes attached to it and helps produce proteins for the cell membrane
Explain the role of the smooth ER - correct answer helps the Liver and kidney cells to detoxify,
lipid metabolism, synthesis of hormones, and calcium storage
,NUR 2063 Pathophysiology Rasmussen
College Final Exam
Explain the role of the peroxisome - correct answer membrane cells that contain oxidase and
catalase to detoxify harmful chemicals, breakdown hydrogen peroxide and filter metabolic
wastes
Explain the role of the Golgi body - correct answer stacked membranes that act as the sorter
and packager for proteins from the ER. Helps move things in and out of cell
Explain passive immunity - correct answer the transfer of preformed antibodies against specific
antigens from a protected or immunized individual to an unprotected or non immunized
person. Provides immediate and short term protection. No memory cells are produced. IgA and
IgE. Passes protection
What are examples of passive immunity? - correct answer mom to fetus through placenta or
mom to infant through breast milk. Serotherapy
Explain active immunity - correct answer a protective state owing to the immune system
response as a result of active infection or immunization. It has to be activated in the body and
the body has to fight it to have long term immunity
What are examples of active immunity? - correct answer Vaccinations
Explain what edema is - correct answer accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space. Leads to
tissue swelling
What are some causes of edema? - correct answer increase in the forces that move fluid from
capillaries to interstitial compartments or decrease in the opposite.
What are factors that contribute to edema? - correct answer Increase in hydrostatic forces in
the capillaries that increases the blood volume, increased capillary permeability, CHF, HYPTN,
decrease in plasma proteins like albumin (causes liver to hold onto more water- ascites,
cirrhosis), blockage of lymph drainage
What is a hypersensitivity? - correct answer an overreaction to antigens or allergens that is
beyond the normal range, leading to damage
What is a type 1 hypersensitivity? - correct answer anaphylactic. Occurs within 2-30mins of
exposure. Can be systemic or localized. Binds to IgE and mast cells that release histamine,
leukotrienes, and prostaglandins to create inflammation
Mediating Factor for type 1 hypersensitivity - correct answer IgE
Examples of type 1 hypersensitivity - correct answer allergic reaction to dust. someone eats
peanuts and breaks out in hives and runny nose
, NUR 2063 Pathophysiology Rasmussen
College Final Exam
How do we treat type 1 hypersensitivity reactions? - correct answer antihistamines to block
histamine, beta adrenergics to bronchodilator , corticosteroids, to decrease inflammation. IgE
therapy, epinephrine given during anaphylaxis through IV or through IM in epipens
What are signs and symptoms of a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction? - correct answer hives,
runny nose, eczema, throat constriction, ,localized edema, wheezing, tachycardia, anaphylaxis.
Explain Type 2 Hypersensitivity - correct answer The cells attack healthy organs and blood,
causing symptoms
Mediating factor for type 2 hypersensitivity - correct answer cytotoxic- IgM/ IgG
Examples of type 2 hypersensitivity - correct answer Blood transfusions when wrong blood
given, hemolytic disease of newborn, grans disease, myasthenia gravis
What is type 3 hypersensitivity? - correct answer The igG antibodies are stuck beneath the
membranes of cells. Can activate immune responses that can damage tissues. Immune complex
Mediating factor type 3 hypersensitivity - correct answer immune complexes
Examples type 3 hypersensitivity - correct answer RA, lupus
What is type 4 hypersensitivity? - correct answer there is a delayed cell reaction caused by the
T cells. Antigens are phagocytized and are sensitized to receptors on the t cell. Reexposure
causes the memory cells to release destructive cytokines.
Mediating factor type 4 hypersensitivity - correct answer delayed cell mediated
Examples type 4 hypersensitivity - correct answer TB test, contact dermatitis
Characteristics of benign tumors - correct answer Localized growth that is curable. They more
closely resemble the original tissue type, they grow slowly, have little vascularity, rarely
necrotic, and usually have similar function to the original cells. Can be fatal depending on the
location (brain, heart,etc), usually grows at the original areas of the body. Encapsulated
Characteristics of malignant tumors - correct answer usually cancerous. They ignore growth
controlling signals and replicate despite signals from the environment. They can escape signals
and can die. they can also display different functions poorly or not at all related to the tissue.
Greater degree of differentiation means that it is more aggressive. Can move around with a
poor prognosis. Anaplasia, metastasis
S/S of peptic ulcer disease - correct answer epigastric burning pain that is usually relieved by
food or antacids (gastric ulcers present on empty stomach but can be after food, duodenal
ulcers present 2-3 hours after food and is relieved by food). Can also be life threatening as GI