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EMT JBL OPERATIONS EXAM
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EMT JBL OPERATIONS EXAM
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EMT JBL OPERATIONS EXAM NEWEST 2024 ACTUALEXAM TEST BANK COMPLETE 120 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |
ALREADY GRADED A
According to the USDOT, minimum staffing for BLS ambulance includes: - ANSWER:
At least one EMT in the patient compartment. The driver does not need to be an
EMT
Which of the following statements regarding heatstroke is correct? - ANSWER:
Heatsrtoke occurs when the body is exposed to more heat than it can eliminate and
normal mechanisms such as sweating are overwhelmed. The temp can rise to
appoint where tissues are destroyed. It can develop during prolonged vigorous
physical activity or in closed, poorly ventilated, hot and humid space. High humidity
impairs heat elimination via sweating. Patients will have hot, dry, flushed skin,
become agitated, and LOC will decrease
If a vehicle strikes a tree at 60 mph, the unrestrained driver would likely experience
the MOST severe injuries during the: - ANSWER: Motor-vehicle crashes typically
consist of three separate collisions. Understanding the events that occur during each
collision will help you remain alert for certain types of injury patterns. During the
first collision, the vehicle strikes another object. Damage to the car is perhaps the
most dramatic part of the collision, but it does not directly affect patient care. It
does, however, provide information about the severity of the collision; thus, it has an
indirect effect on patient care. During the second collision, the passenger collides
with the interior of the vehicle. Just like the obvious damage to the exterior of the
car, the injuries that result are often dramatic and usually apparent during your
primary assessment. During the third collision, the occupant's internal organs collide
with the solid structures of the body. Although the injuries that occur during the
third collision may not be as obvious as those that occur during the second collision,
they are often the most life-threatening.
A 22-year-old man had a strong acid chemical splashed into both of his eyes. He is
conscious and alert, is experiencing intense pain, and states that he is wearing
contact lenses. Treatment should include: - ANSWER: As a general rule, contact
lenses should be left in place. Chemical eye burns are an exception to this rule. If left
in place, the chemical could get behind the contact lens and continue to cause injury.
Therefore, you should remove the contact lenses and immediately irrigate the eyes
with sterile saline or water. If needed, continue to irrigate the eyes throughout
transport.
A 22-year-old male has a shard of glass impaled in his cheek. You look inside his
mouth and see minor bleeding. The patient is conscious and alert with adequate
breathing. You should: - ANSWER: It remains true that you should remove an
impaled object if it compromises the airway or impedes your ability to manage the
,airway. However, neither is the case with this patient because he has an adequate
airway. He is conscious and alert and has only minor bleeding in his mouth. The
safest approach, and most practical given the situation, would be to carefully
stabilize the shard of glass in place; consider wrapping the exposed glass with gauze
to protect yourself from getting cut. Since the patient is conscious and alert and has
only minor oral bleeding, it would not be unreasonable to hand him the suction
catheter and allow him to use it as needed. Be sure to instruct the patient to use the
suction and not to swallow any blood. Keep in mind that if you attempt to remove
the shard of glass, you risk cutting yourself and causing further injury to the patient.
When an error occurs while using the AED, it is MOST often the result of: - ANSWER:
AEDs are highly sensitive and specific in recognizing shockable rhythms (eg, V-Fib,
pulseless V-Tach); this means that they are highly reliable. It would be extremely rare
for the AED to recommend a shock when one is not indicated or fail to recommend a
shock when one is indicated. When an error does occur, it is usually the operator's
fault. The most common error is not having a charged battery. To avoid this problem,
many AEDs are equipped with an alarm that warns the operator if the battery is not
fully charged. Some of the older AEDs, however, are not equipped with this feature.
Therefore, it is important to check the AED daily, exercise the battery as often as the
manufacturer recommends, and always have a spare, fully charged battery on hand.
Prior to your arrival, a woman experiencing an asthma attack took two puffs from
her prescribed inhaler without relief. After administering supplemental oxygen, you
should: - ANSWER: Before assisting a patient with any medication other than oxygen,
the EMT must ensure that the medication is prescribed to the patient and then
obtain authorization from medical control. In this case, the physician probably will
allow you to help the patient take one more puff from her inhaler. Generally, up to
three puffs from an inhaler are delivered in the field. It is important for you to ask
the patient how many puffs were taken from the inhaler before you arrived. The
EMT must correct any airway and/or breathing problems as quickly as possible. After
doing so, a secondary assessment can be performed.
Upon discovering an open chest wound, you should: - ANSWER: Upon discovering an
open chest wound (ie, sucking chest wound), you must take immediate action to
prevent air from entering the wound. This is most effectively accomplished by
applying an occlusive dressing or similar material to the wound. A porous (non-
occlusive) trauma dressing will not prevent air from entering the wound. Tape three
sides of the occlusive dressing and closely monitor the patient. If worsened
respiratory distress and signs of shock are noted, a tension pneumothorax is
probably developing, and you must release pressure from the pleural space by lifting
up the unsecured portion of the occlusive dressing.
Which of the following signs and symptoms are MOST characteristic of
hyperglycemic ketoacidosis? - ANSWER: Hyperglycemic ketoacidosis (diabetic coma)
is characterized by a dangerously high blood glucose level (hyperglycemia); slow
onset; warm, dry skin (from dehydration); Kussmaul's respirations, which are deep
and rapid; and breath with a fruity or acetone odor. Insulin shock results from a low
, blood glucose level (hypoglycemia) and is characterized by a rapid onset; altered
mental status; and cool, clammy skin.
You are assessing an elderly man with respiratory distress. He is coughing up bloody
sputum and has an oxygen saturation of 85%. You auscultate his breath sounds and
hear coarse crackles in all lung fields. This patient MOST likely has: - ANSWER: This
patient's signs and symptoms are classic for left-sided congestive heart failure and
pulmonary edema. As the left side of the heart weakens, so that it can no longer
effectively pump blood, blood backs up into the lungs, resulting in pulmonary
edema. As pulmonary edema gets worse, the patient begins coughing up pink, frothy
sputum (hemoptysis). The presence of fluid in the lungs impairs the exchange of
oxygen and carbon dioxide, resulting in hypoxemia and a low oxygen saturation
(SpO2). Auscultation of the patient's lungs often reveals coarse crackles, which
indicates the presence of fluid. Emphysema is a chronic respiratory disease, not an
acute one. Furthermore, hemoptysis is not a common finding with emphysema.
Likewise, patients with decompensated asthma often have markedly diminished lung
sounds owing to severe bronchospasm; hemoptysis and crackles are not common.
Bacterial pneumonia can cause respiratory distress; however, it usually presents with
fever and diminished breath sounds to a localized area of a lung (eg, the left lower
lobe).
After an adult cardiac arrest patient has been intubated by a paramedic, you are
providing ventilations as your partner performs chest compressions. When
ventilating the patient, you should: - ANSWER: When ventilating an adult cardiac
arrest patient with an advanced airway in place (ie, ET tube, multilumen airway,
supraglottic airway), you should deliver each breath over a period of 1 second--just
enough to produce visible chest rise--at a rate of 10 breaths/min (one breath every 6
seconds). Do not attempt to synchronize ventilations with chest compressions once
the airway has been secured with an advanced device. Hyperventilation should be
avoided, as it may result in increased intrathoracic pressure, decreased blood return
to the heart, and, as a result, less effective chest compressions.
Which of the following is a common side effect of nitroglycerin? - ANSWER: Because
nitroglycerin (NTG) causes vasodilation, including the vessels within the brain,
cerebral blood flow increases following its administration. This often causes a
pounding headache for the patient. As uncomfortable as it is for the patient,
headaches are a common and expected side effect of the drug. The vasodilatory
effects of nitroglycerin could result in hypotension; therefore, the patient's blood
pressure should be carefully monitored. Nausea and anxiety are common symptoms
of acute coronary syndrome; they are not common side effects of nitroglycerin.
A 56-year-old man has labored, shallow breathing at a rate of 28 breaths/min. He is
responsive to pain only. You should: - ANSWER: This patient in this scenario is not
breathing adequately. He is responsive to pain only, and his respirations are rapid,
labored, and shallow. You should insert a nasopharyngeal airway, which is usually
well tolerated in patients who are semiconscious and have a gag reflex, and assist his
ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device. When assisting a patient's breathing, you
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