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NUR 1306 TEST #2 QUESTIONS NEUROLOGY ALL ANSWERS CORRECT VERIFIED A COMPLETE SOLUTION THAT COVERS 2024/2025 BEST RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR SUCCESS$11.99
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NUR1306 TEST #2 QUESTIONS NEUROLOGY ALL ANSWERS CORRECT
VERIFIED A COMPLETE SOLUTION THAT COVERS 2024/2025 BEST
RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR SUCCESS
An 18-year-old client is admitted with a closed head injury sustained in a
MVA. His intracranial
A client with a subarachnoid hemorrhage is prescribed a 1,000-mg loading
dose of Dilantin IV. Which consideration is most important when
administering this dose?
1. Therapeutic drug levels should be maintained between 20 to 30 mg/ml.
2. Rapid dilantin administration can cause cardiac arrhythmias.
3. Dilantin should be mixed in dextrose in water before administration.
4. Dilantin should be administered through an IV catheter in the client's
hand. - CORRECT ANSWERS 2. Rapid dilantin administration can cause
cardiac arrhythmias.
Dilantin IV shouldn't be given at a rate exceeding 50 mg/minute. Rapid
administration can depress the myocardium, causing arrhythmias.
Therapeutic drug levels range from 10 to 20 mg/ml. Dilantin shouldn't be
mixed in solution for administration.
When given through an IV catheter hand, dilantin may cause purple glove
syndrome.
A client with head trauma develops a urine output of 300 ml/hr, dry skin,
and dry mucous membranes. Which of the following nursing interventions
is the most appropriate to perform initially?
1. Evaluate urine specific gravity
2. Anticipate treatment for renal failure
3. Provide emollients to the skin to prevent breakdown
4. Slow down the IV fluids and notify the physician - CORRECT ANSWERS
1. Evaluate urine specific gravity
,NUR1306 TEST #2 QUESTIONS NEUROLOGY ALL ANSWERS CORRECT
VERIFIED A COMPLETE SOLUTION THAT COVERS 2024/2025 BEST
RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR SUCCESS
Urine output of 300 ml/hr may indicate diabetes insipidus, which is a
failure of the pituitary to produce anti-diuretic hormone. This may occur
with increased intracranial pressure and head trauma; the nurse evaluates
for low urine specific gravity, increased serum osmolarity, and dehydration.
Slowing the rate of IV fluid would contribute to dehydration when polyuria
is present.
When evaluating an ABG from a client with a subdural hematoma, the nurse
notes the PaCO2 is 30 mm Hg. Which of the following responses best
describes this result?
1. Appropriate; lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranial
pressure (ICP)
2. Emergent; the client is poorly oxygenated.
3. Normal
4. Significant; the client has alveolar hypoventilation. - CORRECT ANSWERS
1. Appropriate; lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranial
pressure (ICP)
A normal PaCO2 value is 35 to 45 mm Hg. CO2 has vasodilating properties;
therefore, lowering PaCO2 through hyperventilation will lower ICP caused
by dilated cerebral vessels.
A client who had a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy should be watched
carefully for hemorrhage, which may be shown by which of the following
signs?
1. Bloody drainage from the ears
2. Frequent swallowing
3. Guaiac-positive stools
4. Hematuria - CORRECT ANSWERS 2. Frequent swallowing
,NUR1306 TEST #2 QUESTIONS NEUROLOGY ALL ANSWERS CORRECT
VERIFIED A COMPLETE SOLUTION THAT COVERS 2024/2025 BEST
RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR SUCCESS
Frequent swallowing after brain surgery may indicate fluid or blood leaking
from the sinuses into the oropharynx. Blood or fluid draining from the ear
may indicate a basilar skull fracture.
After a hypophysectomy, vasopressin is given IM for which of the following
reasons?
1. To treat growth failure
2. To prevent syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
3. To reduce cerebral edema and lower intracranial pressure
4. To replace antidiuretic hormone (ADH) normally secreted by the
pituitary. - CORRECT ANSWERS 4. To replace antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
normally secreted by the pituitary.
After hypophysectomy, or removal of the pituitary gland, the body can't
synthesize ADH.
Somatropin or growth hormone, not vasopressin is used to treat growth
failure.
SIADH results from excessive ADH secretion. Mannitol or corticosteroids
are used to decrease cerebral edema.
A client comes into the ER after hitting his head in an MVA. He's alert and
oriented. Which of the following nursing interventions should be done
first?
1. Assess full ROM to determine extent of injuries
2. Call for an immediate chest x-ray
3. Immobilize the client's head and neck
4. Open the airway with the head-tilt chin-lift maneuver - CORRECT
ANSWERS 3. Immobilize the client's head and neck
, NUR1306 TEST #2 QUESTIONS NEUROLOGY ALL ANSWERS CORRECT
VERIFIED A COMPLETE SOLUTION THAT COVERS 2024/2025 BEST
RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR SUCCESS
All clients with a head injury are treated as if a cervical spine injury is
present until x-rays confirm their absence.
A client with a C6 spinal injury would most likely have which of the
following symptoms?
1. Aphasia
2. Hemiparesis
3. Paraplegia
4. Tetraplegia - CORRECT ANSWERS 4. Tetraplegia
A 30-year-old was admitted to the progressive care unit with a C5 fracture
from a motorcycle accident. Which of the following assessments would take
priority?
1. Bladder distension
2. Neurological deficit
3. Pulse ox readings
4. The client's feelings about the injury - CORRECT ANSWERS 3. Pulse ox
readings
After a spinal cord injury, ascending cord edema may cause a higher level of
injury. The diaphragm is innervated at the level of C4, so assessment of
adequate oxygenation and ventilation is necessary. Although the other
options would be necessary at a later time, observation for respiratory
failure is the priority.
While in the ER, a client with C8 tetraplegia develops a blood pressure of
80/40, pulse 48, and RR of 18. The nurse suspects which of the following
conditions?
1. Autonomic dysreflexia
2. Hemorrhagic shock
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