AAPD Remembered Questions and
Answers Graded A+
In infants, what is the best indicator for future caries? - answer plaque on maxillary
anteriors
A pea-sized amount of fluoridated toothpaste is appropriate for what age range? -
answer age 2-5
In a child under the age of 3, what factors automatically assign that child an S-ECC
status? - answer White spot lesions, any carious lesion on a smooth surface
Name 7 factors that assign a high caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - answer 1)
Mother/caregiver with active caries; 2) Parent/caregiver low SES; 3) greater than three
between-meal sugar-containing snacks or beverages per day; 4) Child is put to bed with
a bottle containing natural or added sugar; 5) child has greater than 1 DMFS; 6) Child
has active white spot lesions or enamel defects; 7) Child has elevated MS levels
Name 3 factors that assign a moderate caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - answer 1)
Child has special health care needs; 2) Child is a recent immigrant; 3) Child has plaque
on teeth
Name the 4 caries protective factors. - answer 1) Child receives optimally-fluoridated
drinking water or fluoride supplements; 2) Child has teeth brushed daily with fluoridated
toothpaste; 3) Child receives topical fluoride from health professional; 4) Child has
dental home/regular dental care
Neural crest cells develop from ________. Name some structures that neural crests are
responsible for forming. - answer 1) ectoderm on the lateral border of the neural
plate. 2) bone, cartilage, dentin, dermis (not enamel)
Dental lamina begins formation at _______ embryonic age. - answer 6 weeks
From what structure does dental lamina form? - answer basal layer of oral epithelium
What structures form from dental lamina? - answer tooth buds
At what age does the permanent first molar begin initiation? At what age does the
permanent 2nd molar begin initiation? - answer 1) 16 weeks in utero 2) 4-5 years
Name the components of the tooth bud. - answer enamel organ, dental papilla,
dental sac
,Name the components of the enamel organ. - answer Inner enamel epithelium
(concavity), outer enamel epithelium (convexity), stellate reticulum (center)
The dental papilla forms from ________. - answer neural crest
Name the stages of tooth development in order. - answer Bud stage, cap stage, bell
stage, advanced bell stage
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath is composed of what structures? - answer inner and
outer enamel epithelia (not stratum intermedium or stellate reticulum)
The remnants of Hertwig's root sheath persist as _____. - answer rests of Malassez
Problems in the initiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of __________.
- answer Tooth number
Problems in the proliferation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of
__________. - answer size, proportion, number, twinning
Problems in the histodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of
____________. - answer anomalies of enamel and dentin (enamel hypoplasia, AI,
DI, DD)
Problems in the morphodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to
_____________. - answer Anomalies of enamel, dentin, and cementum
Is hyperdontia more common in males or females? - answer males (2:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in primary or permanent dentition? - answer
permanent dentition (5:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in the maxilla or the mandible? - answer maxilla (9:1)
Name the most common teeth affected by hypodontia in order of frequency. - answer
3rd molars, mandibular 2nd premolar, maxillary lateral, maxillary 2nd premolar
Name (9) syndromes associated with hyperdontia. - answer Apert's, cleidocranial
dysplasia, Gardner syndrome, Crouzon syndrome, Sturge-Weber syndrome,
Orofaciodigital syndrome I, Hallerman-Strieff syndrome, cleft lip and palate, Down
syndrome
Describe features of Apert Syndrome. - answer supernumerary teeth, cleft palate,
delayed/ectopic eruption, shovel shaped incisors, hypoplastic midface, syndactyly,
craniosynostosis, hypertelorism, class III with anterior openbite, crowded dentition
,Describe features of cleidocranial dysplasia. - answer supernumerary teeth, delayed
development/eruption, midface hypoplasia, enamel hypoplasia, missing clavicle,
craniosynostosis
Describe features of Gardner Syndrome - answer supernumerary teeth, osteomas of
the jaw, delayed eruption, colonic polyps
Describe features of Crouzon syndrome. - answer supernumerary teeth, midface
hypoplasia, inverted V shaped palate, craniosynostosis, exopthalamos
Describe features of Sturge-Weber syndrome - answer port-wine stains which follow
the trigeminal nerve, supernumerary teeth, overgrowth of maxilla, ipsilateral gyriform
calcifications of cerebral cortex, 100% have seizures, hemiplegia, ocular defects,
bleeding and gingival hyperplasia, alveolar bone loss, pyogenic granulomas
Describe features of orofaciodigital syndrome. - answer supernumerary teeth and/or
hypodontia; multiple or hyperplastic frenula, cleft tongue
Describe features of Hallerman-Strieff syndrome. - answer supernumerary teeth,
mandibular hypoplasia, high palatal vault, delayed primary exfoliation, malar hypoplasia
Describe features of ectodermal dysplasia. - answer hypodontia, conical crowns,
deficient alveolar ridge
Describe features of achondroplasia - answer hypodontia, short stature, frontal
bossing, midface hypoplasia
Describe features of chondroectodermal dysplasia (aka Ellis van Creveld). - answer
hypodontia, conical crowns, enamel hypoplasia, short stature, lack of maxillary sulcus,
premature teeth
Describe features of Incontinentia pigmenti - answer hypodontia, conical crowns,
delayed eruption, premature teeth, cleft lip/palate, blistering of the skin,
hyperpigmentation
Describe features of Rieger syndrome. - answer Hypodontia, midface hypoplasia,
delayed eruption, short stature, eye malformation
Describe features of Seckel syndrome - answer hypodontia, microcephaly, midface
hypoplasia, dwarfism, large eyes
Describe features of Williams Syndrome. - answer Hypodontia, prominent lips,
microdontia, enamel hypoplasia, elflike facial appearance, happy demeanor
Is gemination more common in the primary or permanent dentition? - answer
Primary
, Describe twinning. - answer Complete cleavage of a single tooth bud which results in
a supernumerary mirror image tooth.
What is the cause of taurodontism? - answer failure of normal invagination of
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath
Name 6 diseases associated with taurodontism. - answer Klinefelter syndrome,
tricho-dento-osseous syndrome, Mohr syndrome (aka orofaciodigital syndrome II),
ectodermal dysplasia, Down syndrome, amelogenesis imperfecta type IV
Describe the features of Klinefelter syndrome. - answer taurodontism, small cranial
dimension, bimaxillary prognathism, male with extra X chromosome, gynecomastia
Describe the features of tricho-dento-osseous syndrome. - answer Dolichocephalic
with frontal bossing, taurodontism, delayed eruption, kinky or coarse hair at birth,
enamel hypoplasia, AI+taurodontism+nail and hair defects
Describe the features of Mohr syndrome. - answer Lobed tongue, upper lip/midline
cleft, oligodontia, polydactyly
The most common type of amelogenesis imperfecta is : - answer type I- hypoplastic
What type of amelogenesis imperfecta is associated with taurodontism? - answer AI
type IV with taurodontism (hypomaturation-hypoplastic)
Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a defect of what structure? - answer Predentin matrix
(normal mantle dentin)
Which type of Dentinogenesis imperfecta occurs along with osteogenesis imperfecta? -
answer Shields Type I
Describe Shields Type I dentinogenesis imperfecta. - answer Occurs with
osteogenesis imperfecta, primary teeth more severely affected, permanent first molars
and central incisors most often affected, amber translucence, periapical radiolucencies
without caries, autosomal dominant, rapid attrition
Describe Shields type II dentinogenesis imperfecta - answer no OI, hereditary
opalescent dentin, both primary and permanent dentitions equally affected, periapical
radiolucencies, rapid attrition, pulp chamber obliteration, autosomal dominant
Describe Shields Type III dentinogenesis imperfecta. - answer bell-shaped crowns,
"shell teeth", short roots, enlarged pulp chambers, enamel pitting, rare, pulp exposures
What type of osteogenesis imperfecta is the most common? - answer OI type I
