Test Bank Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Women’s Health Nursing 8th Edition (Murray, 2024) Chapter 1-28 | BEST STUDY GUIDE
Solution Manual for Murray Foundations of Maternal-Newborn and Women's Health Nursing, 8th Edition by Sharon Smith Murray, Emily Slone McKinney, Karen Holub, Renee Jones ISBN:9780323827386 ALL CHAPTER...
Test Bank for Foundations of Maternal-Newborn and Women's Health Nursing 8th Edition by Sharon Murray; Slone McKinney, All 1-28 Chapters Covered ,Latest Edition, ISBN:9780323827386
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TEST BANK - Murray, McKinney, Foundations of Maternal-
Newborn and Women's Health Nursing 8th Edition,
1. A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous
magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a
a.
diuretic.
b.
tocolytic.
c.
anticonvulsant.
d.
antihypertensive. - ANSWER:ANS: C
Anticonvulsant drugs act by blocking neuromuscular transmission and depress the
central nervous system to control seizure activity. Diuresis is a therapeutic response
to magnesium sulfate. A tocolytic drug slows the frequency and intensity of uterine
contractions but is not used for that purpose in this scenario. Decreased peripheral
blood pressure is a therapeutic response (side effect) of the anticonvulsant
magnesium sulfate.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: Patient Needs: Physiologic Integrity
2. Which clinical intervention is the only known cure for preeclampsia?
a.
Magnesium sulfate
b.
Delivery of the fetus
c.
Antihypertensive medications
d.
Administration of aspirin (ASA) every day of the pregnancy - ANSWER:ANS: B
Delivery of the infant is the only known intervention to halt the progression of
preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is one of the medications used to treat but not
cure preeclampsia. Antihypertensive medications are used to lower the dangerously
elevated blood pressures in preeclampsia and eclampsia. Low doses of aspirin (81
mg/day) have been administered to women at high risk for developing preeclampsia.
This intervention appears to have little benefit.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: Patient Needs: Physiologic Integrity
3. The clinic nurse is performing a prenatal assessment on a pregnant patient at risk
for preeclampsia. Which clinical sign would not present as a symptom of
preeclampsia?
a.
,Edema
b.
Proteinuria
c.
Glucosuria
d.
Hypertension - ANSWER:ANS: C
Glucose into the urine is not one of the three classic symptoms of preeclampsia. The
first sign noted by the pregnant patient is rapid weight gain and edema of the hands
and face. Proteinuria usually develops later than the edema and hypertension. The
first indication of preeclampsia is usually an increase in the maternal blood pressure.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: Patient Needs: Physiologic Integrity
4. Which intrapartal assessment should be avoided when caring for a patient with
HELLP syndrome?
a.
Abdominal palpation
b.
Venous sample of blood
c.
Checking deep tendon reflexes
d.
Auscultation of the heart and lungs - ANSWER:ANS: A
Palpation of the abdomen and liver could result in a sudden increase in
intraabdominal pressure, leading to rupture of the subcapsular hematoma.
Assessment of heart and lungs is performed on every patient. Checking reflexes is
not contraindicated. Venous blood is checked frequently to observe for
thrombocytopenia.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
MSC: Patient Needs: Physiologic Integrity
5. A nurse is explaining to the nursing students working on the antepartum unit how
to assess for edema. Which edema assessment score indicates edema of the lower
extremities, face, hands, and sacral area?
a.
+1
b.
+2
c.
+3
d.
+4 - ANSWER:ANS: C
Edema of the extremities, face, and sacral area is classified as +3 edema. Edema
classified as +1 indicates minimal edema of the lower extremities. Marked edema of
the lower extremities is +2 edema. Generalized massive edema (+4) includes the
accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
6. Which maternal condition always necessitates delivery by cesarean birth?
a.
Partial abruptio placentae
b.
Total placenta previa
c.
Ectopic pregnancy
d.
Eclampsia - ANSWER:ANS: B
In total placenta previa, the placenta completely covers the cervical os. The fetus
would die if a vaginal birth occurred. If the patient has stable vital signs and the fetus
is alive, a vaginal birth can be attempted. If the fetus has already expired, a vaginal
birth is preferred. The most common ectopic pregnancy is a tubal pregnancy, which
is usually detected and treated in the first trimester. Labor can be safely induced if
the eclampsia is under control.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: Patient Needs: Physiologic Integrity
7. Spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion if
a.
the pregnancy is less than 20 weeks.
b.
the fetus weighs less than 1000 g.
c.
the products of conception are passed intact.
d.
there is no evidence of intrauterine infection. - ANSWER:ANS: A
An abortion is the termination of pregnancy before the age of viability (20 weeks).
The weight of the fetus is not considered because some fetuses of an older age may
have a low birth weight. A spontaneous abortion may be complete or incomplete. A
spontaneous abortion may be caused by many problems, one being intrauterine
infection.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: Patient Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
8. An abortion when the fetus dies but is retained in the uterus is called
a.
inevitable.
b.
missed.
c.
incomplete.
d.
threatened - ANSWER:ANS: B
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