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Air law Exam Questions and Answers 2024 (Verified Answers).

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Air law Exam Questions and Answers 2024 (Verified Answers). 1. Which procedure do you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failure? a) Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable. 2. When a flight is operated without a destination alternat...

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  • September 10, 2024
  • 49
  • 2024/2025
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  • Questions & answers
  • air law exam
  • Air law
  • Air law
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Air law Exam Questions and Answers 2024
(Verified Answers)

, Air law Questions and Answers
1. Which procedure do you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication
failure?

a) Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
2. When a flight is operated without a destination alternate aerodrome the required destination
alternate fuel to be carried shall be:
a) For a turbine engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 2 hours at normal cruise
consumption above the destination aerodrome, including final reserve fuel
3. The “empty mass” of an aircraft is:
a) The mass of the aircraft, including any engine coolant, unusable fuel, total oil, total
hydraulic fluid, any fixed ballast and all items of fixed equipment
4. Any notification of an accident or incident referred to in regulation 12.02.1, 12.02.2 or 12.02.3
other than an ATS incident shall include (amongst others) the following particulars:
1.Type, model, nationality and registration marks of the aircraft
2.The date and time of the accident or incident, specified in co-ordinated time or local time
3.Location of the accident or incident with reference to an easily identifiable geographical
point and if known, with reference to latitude and longitude
4.Number of flight crew members and passengers aboard, killed or seriously injured and
other persons killed or seriously injured
5.Nature of the accident or incident and extent of damage to aircraft as far as is known
The combination that regroups all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
5. The minimum age for the issue of a CPL is:
a) 18

6. Details of Prohibited Areas published in the:

a) AIP

7. When acting as PIC under the supervision of an appropriately rated flight instructor during flight
training on an approved integrated course of CPL or CPL/IR training and for a successful CPL or
IR initial flight test, a person may log the time as:

a) Pilot in command time and SPIC noted under the remarks column


8. Minimum final reserve fuel for a turbo-propeller aircraft on a commercial flight is:

a) Fuel for 30 minutes flying at holding speed 1 500 feet above aerodrome elevation.


9. At night when flying by IFR and except when taking-off or landing, the minimum height above the
height of the highest obstacle at 5 000 feet or below and within 5 NM of the aircraft is:

a) 1 000 ft.

10. When an aircraft has been involved in an accident, the investigator in charge may:

a) Call upon the owner, operator or PIC of any aircraft to produce or cause to be produced for
inspection or investigation any licence, certificate, manual, logbook or other document
relating to the aircraft or crew


11. The minimum sector altitude provides 1500 ft obstacle clearance within how many miles radius
from the navigation facility upon which the instrument approach procedure is predicated:

a) 25 NM (46 km).


12. The holder of a crew member licence who has given birth may act as a flight crew member:

a) After 6 weeks of giving birth

, Air law Questions and Answers


13. Would you expect a delay if no EAT has been given?

a) Could be delayed by up to 10 minutes.

14. A flight plan to be filed for a flight to be conducted in controlled airspace shall be filed:

a) Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, 30 minutes before departure.

15. An aerodrome and its environs shall not be overflown at a height of:

a) Less than 2 000 ft.

16. An instructor’s rating is valid for:
a) 12 months

17. The holder of a pilot licence issued in terms of Part 61 may not exercise the privileges of that
licence –
1.Unless that person holds an appropriate valid medical certificate issued in terms of part 67
and complies with all medical endorsements on that medical
2.While he/she is aware of having a medical deficiency that would make him/her unable to
meet the medical standards for his/her medical certificate, until he/she has been assessed
and declared medically fit again by an aviation medical examiner designated in terms of
Part 67
3.When he/she is unable to act as a flight crew member of an aircraft because of the use of
any psychoactive substance
4.When he/she is unable to act as a flight crew member of an aircraft because of the use of
alcohol
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4


18. Class G airspace. IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all the flights receive:
a) Only Traffic Information.

19. “Instrument flight time” means:.
a) The time during which an aircraft is operated solely by reference to instruments and without
any external reference points.

20. Regarding Medical examinations, the Director must:
a) Exercise control over medical examinations or tests and over aviation medical examiners
performing such examinations

21. A so called " Visual Approach" can be performed :
a) during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying
ground;

22. No aircraft shall take off from, land at or approach to land at an aerodrome or fly within an
aerodrome traffic zone under normal VFR operations when the ground visibility at the aerodrome
concerned is less than:
a) 5 km and the ceiling is less than 1500 ft


23. An applicant for a commercial pilot’s license shall inter alia:

a) Be not less than 18 years of age and have completed not less than 200 hours of flight time
including 20 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC.

24. You decide to practice instrument approaches in VMC by night, you may:
a) Only do so with the assistance of a safety pilot who occupies a pilot seat and holds an
instrument rating

, Air law Questions and Answers

25. A flight plan TAS is recorded as 150 kts in controlled airspace. Due to winds to improve the range,
you reduce power, and the TAS is now 138 kts.

a) You must inform ATSU, because your TAS has changed by more than 5%.

26. Which statement is correct? During a " Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Class C):

a) ATC will apply separation with other traffic

27. If a flight plan has not been activated, it will automatically be cancelled after:

a) 1 hour.


28. “Date of application” is the date:

a) On which the CAA receives the application in an acceptable form

29. An applicant for a single-pilot multi-engine aeroplane type rating must have at least:

a) 70 hours experience as PIC of aeroplanes

30. Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, and ATS flight plan for a flight to be
conducted in controlled or advisory airspace shall be filled:

a) For international flights, at least 60 minutes before departure

31. According to CAR 2011, when an aerodrome is selected as a destination or alternate aerodrome,
the appropriate weather reports or forecasts or a combination thereof, must be at or above the
applicable planning minima for a period of:
a) 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome

32. For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with nav aids, the estimated time of arrival is the
estimated time at which the aircraft:

a) will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.

33. Licences issued under Part 61 are:
1.NPL
2.SPL
3.PPL
4.CPL
5.ATPL
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements are:
a) 2, 3, 4, 5

34. The ICAO is a body which:
a) Offers guidelines to local aviation authorities.

35. May a pilot in a multi-crew environment leave his/her assigned station during flight?

a) Yes, provided it is for physiological needs and at least one suitably qualified pilot remains at
the controls of the aircraft at all times

36. An applicant for an initial single-pilot, multi-engine class rating must have completed, on a multi-
engine aircraft, a minimum:

a) 6 Hours dual flight training.

37. In the event that you have had a minor surgical operation or invasive procedure, you must
a) Notify the designated body or institution

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