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Nur611 Final Exam – with 214 Questions and Proper Answers 2024/2025
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Nur611 Final Exam – with 214 Questions and Proper Answers2024/2025
1. A child with atrial septal defect usually presents with?: Frequent URIs and
fatigue
2. Acyanotic: Left to Right shunting includes?: ASD, VSD, and PDA
3. Acyanotic: L to R Outflow obstruction includes?: Pulmonary and aortic stenosis,
coarctation of aorta
4. Cyanotic: Right to left shunting decreased pulmonary flow includes?: Tetralogy
of fallot, tricuspid atresia, hypo plastic L heart syndrome
5. Cyanotic: Right to left shunting mixed blood flow includes?: Transposition of
great vessels, trunks arterioles
6. CHF in infants includes which s/s: rales, peripheral edema, SOB, DOE, tachypnea,
tachycardia, hepatomegaly, cardiomegaly, poor growth and development
7. Marked different in UE BP and LE BP would likely be which heart defect in a
4yr old?: coarctation of aorta
8. Most common cause of uncontrolled HTN?: sleep apnea
9. Which BP meds cause angioedema and a dry cough: ACEI
10. Which 2 BP med classes cause hyperkalemia and cannot be used together
simultaneously: ACEI and ARBs
11. BB should be used if there is a MI or CHF history, but should not be used in
which patients?: COPD, asthma patients
12. CCB can cause swelling where?: lower extremities
13. What fruit to avoid while on CCBs?: grapefruit
14. Hyperkalemia: peaked T wave, wide QRS, long ST
15. Hypokalemia: depressed T wave, U waves
16. Hypercalcemia: short ARS and ST
17. Hypocalcemia: long ST
18. SABA: albuterol
19. LABA + ICS: Dulera, Symbicort, Brea Ellipta, Advair
20. Atrovent: don't use on patients with BPH or glaucoma
21. LAMA: Spiriva
22. with obstructive airways problems they have trouble breathing???: Breathing
out
1/9
, 23. not COPD unless FEV1/FVC is less than?: <70
24. with COPD they will have a HX of?: chronic cough, purulent sputum, increased
sputum, smoking, alpha 1 antrysin before age 40
25. Rule of 2 with SABAs: using inhaler >2x week, awakening >2x month, refills >2x
year
26. Theophylline and MAOIs: Adverse reactions if mixed
27. Test for appendicitis?: Rovsings, Psoas, Obturator, Jar, McBurneys point
28. Test for cholecystitis?: Murphys sign (RUQ)
29 Pain elicited by RUQ palpation?: Murphys sign-gallbladder
30. surface antigeN: infectioN
31. surface antibodY: immunitY
32. IgG (gone) so if IgG is negative they have: immunity from immunization
33. IgG is positive they have: immunity from disease
34. IgG - IgM +: acute
35. IgG + IgM -: past infection
36. IgG + IgM +: last 6 months
37. More than ___% of those with Hep C infection go on to develop a chronic
infection: 50
38. Hep A is most common contracted from: international travel. fecal-oral
39. Hep B is most common, caused from?: blood, saliva, semen, vaginal secretions
40. Hep C is caused from?: blood, shared needles, Sex, born btw 1945 and 1965
41. Hep D is only present: with Hep B
42. Hep E: fecal containing water
43. Acute abrupt onset of diarrhea is most likely: viral
44. Most common causes of diarrhea?: Infectious gastroenteritis, IBD, diverticulitis
45. Most appropriate procedure to determine source of bleeding in upper GI tract?:
EGD (endoscopy)
46. IBS pain is usually relieved by?: defacation
47. colorectal CA usually has no s/s until what stage: 3 or 4
48. highest RF for colorectal CA: age
49. what is not a risk factor for colorectal CA: chronic aspirin therapy
50. Intussusception is when what telescopes within itself: bowel
2/9
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