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AANP board TEST EXAM 2024 AND PRACTICE EXAM T |ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS| VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS |GRADED A | BRAND NEW $11.49   Add to cart

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AANP board TEST EXAM 2024 AND PRACTICE EXAM T |ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS| VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS |GRADED A | BRAND NEW

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A pregnant patient at 18 weeks gestation obtains a urine sample as part of a routine prenatal visit. They report no pain or burning with urination, but there are positive leukocytes and nitrites present on the urinalysis. Which of the following reflects the best treatment plan? - ANSWER A. Since t...

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  • September 3, 2024
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AANP board TEST EXAM 2024 AND PRACTICE
EXAM T |ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS|
VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS |GRADED A |
BRAND NEW
A pregnant patient at 18 weeks gestation obtains a urine sample as part of a routine prenatal
visit. They report no pain or burning with urination, but there are positive leukocytes and
nitrites present on the urinalysis. Which of the following reflects the best treatment plan? -
ANSWER A.
Since they do not have any active symptoms, they do not require treatment


B.
They can be treated with amoxicillin (Amoxil) for their urinary tract infection


C.
They should be sent to the hospital for treatment, as there is concern for pyelonephritis


D.
They should receive a 3-day course of ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for their urinary tract infection


Answer: B
Amoxicillin (B) is safe throughout all trimesters of pregnancy and can be used for urinary tract
infections as long as the bacteria are susceptible. Antibiotics such as Keflex (Cephalexin) and
Macrobid (Nitrofurantoin) can also be used during particular trimesters. -"CAMP"
Fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin (D) should be avoided in pregnant patients, as it crosses the
placenta.


One way to combat the wearing off effect of carbidopa-levodopa is to ______
- ANSWER Changing the brand, dosing, and timing of the medication

,Additionally, carbidopa-levodopa is not a first-line or initial treatment option and is reserved for
severe cases or as a final treatment for patients in which other medications have failed,
generated resistance over time, or have lessened effect or loss of control of symptoms over
time.


Typical frequency of prenatal visits (may vary according to mother's and baby's condition) -
ANSWER 4 to 28 weeks - once a month
28 to 36 - every 2 weeks
36 to 41 weeks - once a week


Grade of VUR and interventions:
- ANSWER Grade I VUR fills the ureter without dilation.
spontaneous recovery by 5 years old; close surveillance and measures


Grade II VUR fills the ureter and collecting system, but no dilation occurs.
spontaneous recovery by 5 years old; close surveillance and measures


Grade III VUR fills the ureter and starts to dilate the ureter and collecting system.


Grade IV VUR fills and largely dilates the ureter and collecting system, which leads to some
twisting of the ureter.


Grade V VUR dilates the ureter and the collecting system. It may cause intrakidney reflux and
leads to significant twisting of the ureter.


Grade III VUR or higher should be referred to urology.
Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for patients with grade III VUR or higher, those with
grade I or grade II VUR with a history of urinary tract infection, those who are not toilet-trained,
and those with bowel or bladder dysfunction.

,alpha-thalassemia most commonly affects patients from________
beta-thalassemia most commonly affects patients from ________
- ANSWER Southeast Asia
Mediterranean region


Which of the following is not considered a secondary prevention method for a 50-year-old
patient?


A.
Assessing for tobacco use at each clinic visit


B.
Checking blood pressure at a yearly physical


C.
Ordering a screening mammograms now and every 2 years


D.
Ordering a screening colonoscopy
- ANSWER Answer: A


Asking a patient about their smoking use (A) is recommended at every visit, but it is not a form
of screening or detecting a disease.


Primary prevention strategies target the prevention of illness, injury, or disability. Public
campaign interventions promoting vaccinations are an example of a primary prevention
strategy. Secondary prevention strategies target early detection and treatment of disease,
especially for populations at increased risk. For example, annual mammograms for patients

, beginning at age 40 are recommended for early detection and treatment of breast cancer.
Further, health outcomes are improved when cancer is detected and treated early. Tertiary level
of prevention targets further exacerbations or complications in individuals that have developed
the disease. For example, teaching insulin injection techniques to patients with diabetes
increases the patient's self-efficacy for diabetes management and lowers the risk of
hyperglycemia.


Calculation and interpretation of ABI:
- ANSWER divide the highest ankle SBP of the leg under evaluation by the highest arm SBP from
either arm. Normal ABI is 1-1.3. A diagnosis of borderline PAD based on an ABI is 0.9-1. Any
patient with an ABI < 0.9 is considered to have PAD, with the most severe cases having an ABI <
0.4.


Symptoms of ______ include intense itching that is worse at night, progressively worsens, and
causes fitful sleep and irritation. Lesions are usually S-shaped burrows, especially in the webs of
the hands, feet, genitalia, armpits, and buttocks.
Management and interventions ______________
- ANSWER Scabies


Nonmachine washable items should be placed in a plastic bag and sealed for 1 week as mites
can only survive without a human host for a few days.
The patient and his household should be treated with permethrin 5% and the treatment should
be repeated in 7 days. All clothing and bedding should be washed in extremely hot water and
dried on the hottest setting.


The first-line treatment for persistent folliculitis treated with mupirocin when methicillin-
resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is not suspected _________
if MRSA was cultured or suspected_______
- ANSWER Cephalexin
Clindamycin

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