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WGU D027 OBJECTIVE ASSESMENT EXAM LATEST VERSION 1, 2 & 3 ALL 550 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED SOLUTIONS WITH RATIONALES LATEST $24.99   Add to cart

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WGU D027 OBJECTIVE ASSESMENT EXAM LATEST VERSION 1, 2 & 3 ALL 550 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED SOLUTIONS WITH RATIONALES LATEST

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WGU D027 OBJECTIVE ASSESMENT EXAM LATEST VERSION 1, 2 & 3 ALL 550 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED SOLUTIONS WITH RATIONALES LATEST

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  • August 20, 2024
  • 229
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
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  • wgu d027 objective
  • WGU D027 OBJECTIVE ASSESMENT
  • WGU D027 OBJECTIVE ASSESMENT
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WGU D027 OBJECTIVE ASSESMENT EXAM LATEST VERSION 1, 2 & 3
ALL 550 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED SOLUTIONS WITH
RATIONALES LATEST 2024-2025
WGU D027 OBJECTIVE ASSESMENT EXAM 1

Which of the following is not a cellular function? - ANSWER-Combustion -

All living cells must absorb and metabolize sources of energy, excrete waste and by-products of
those processes, and reproduce to continue offspring. Pyrotechnic processes (i.e. combustion)
are generally metaphorical.



QUESTION: What are mitochondria responsible for? - ANSWER-Energy production -

Mitochondria are the energy production organelles of the cell responsible for the major
metabolic processes of creating units of energy (e.g., ATP).



QUESTION: Which if the following can cause edema? - ANSWER-Increased lymphatic pressure -

Decreased vascular and lymphatic pressure does not generally result in the movement and
accumulation of fluid into extravascular spaces. Increased plasma pressure in the vascular
results in hypertension, while increased lymphatic pressure will readily result in the pooling of
lymphatic drainage into third spaces (i.e. edema).



QUESTION: Which of the following best describes the result of cellular reproduction? -
ANSWER-Two diploid cells, called daughter cells, are produced -

The resultant offspring of cellular reproduction is the creation of two daughter cells after the
completion of mitosis or meiosis. Interphase is the longest period that a cell spends its life cycle
and is the preparatory stage before cellular reproduction. Anaphase is the separation of genetic
materials to the opposing centromeres of the cell, followed by telophase.



QUESTION: What indicates hypokalemia? - ANSWER-Serum K decreases to less than 3.5 -

Normal serum potassium (K), also known as eukalemia, is generally 3.5-5.5 mEq/L, with some
variations of +/- 0.1-0.3 mEq/L depending on the laboratory testing, age, and other potential


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patient-specific conditions and variations. Alterations in fluid volume or the administration of a
supplement alone do not necessarily contribute to the development of hypokalemia.



QUESTION: What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy? - ANSWER-Uterine
enlargement due to pregnancy -

Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells of an organ or tissue, while hypertrophy is the
enlargement of the cells of a given organ or tissue without a change in the number of cells.
Muscle cells grow and enlarge (hypertrophy) in response to increased work or stress from
exercise or increased cardiovascular pressures. When a liver is damaged or part of it is
removed, it is the one internal solid organ capable of regeneration to repair itself creating more
cells (hyperplasia). During pregnancy, the uterus must both grow to create more cells and
enlarge those existing cells in preparation for the support of a fetus.



QUESTION: What regulates the sodium balance? - ANSWER-Aldosterone -

Aldosterone is a regulatory hormone produced by the adrenal glands to affect the kidneys'
regulation of sodium, potassium, and water excretion.



QUESTION: What is the alteration if the extracellular fluid volume is less than normal? -
ANSWER-Hypotonic -

In hypotonic states, the cell size is increased as a result of water moving from the extracellular
fluid (ECF) into the cell to increase intracellular fluid. Iso- or normotonic states are a balanced
state between intra- and extracellular fluid volumes. Hypertonic states cause water to shift out
of the cell to increase the ECF above normal.



QUESTION: When in excess, what do buffers absorb? - ANSWER-Hydrogen -

Excesses of acid or base, H+ or hydroxyl ion (OH−), are absorbed for the purpose of maintaining
pH homeostasis (pH of 7.38-7.42)



QUESTION: Which of the following would a patient with metabolic acidosis have? - ANSWER-pH
below 7.35; Bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L -




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The diagnosis of metabolic acidosis requires that the testing of arterial blood finds that the pH
is less than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level is less than 22 mEq/L.



QUESTION: What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides? - ANSWER-
Translation -

Translation refers to this process. Transcription is another process in which RNA is synthesized.
Mutation means genetic material has been modified through inheritance. Creation is a term
that does not apply in this context.



QUESTION: What is the recurrence rate for autosomal dominant disease? - ANSWER-50% -

For a couple in which one or both partners are affected by the disease, the chance of each child
being heterozygous affected is 50%.



QUESTION: Which of the following statements is true about autosomal recessive disease? -
ANSWER-It affects both men and women equally -

A criterion for recognizing the inheritance of an autosomal recessive disease is that men and
women will be affected by it in equal measure.



QUESTION: What is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at the specific point
in time? - ANSWER-Prevalence rate -

Incidence rate refers to how many new cases there are of a disease within a period of time
divided by the number of the population's individuals. The prevalence rate is affected by the
incidence rate and how long the affected patients survive. Risk factor is anything that could
lead to disease. Relative risk is the measure of a risk factor effect.



QUESTION: Which of the following should be completed when a disease is multifactorial but
has a larger genetic component? - ANSWER-Get a thorough family history -

Environment and lifestyle choices may influence a disease, but diseases such as breast cancer
are hereditary, so the family history should be reviewed.




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QUESTION: Which action is the purpose of the inflammatory process? - ANSWER-To destroy
foreign, invasive microorganisms -

The general purpose of inflammation is to initiate the destruction of foreign or invasive
organisms. As a secondary effect, it increases the healing and immune response processes of
the body.



QUESTION: What causes edema that occurs during the inflammatory process? - ANSWER-
Increased vascular permeability -

Increased pressure in the vasculature secondary to the vasodilatory effects of inflammation will
result in the leakage of fluid into third spaces (i.e., edema).

Previousquestion



QUESTION: In what structure do B lymphocytes mature and become B cells? - ANSWER-Bone
marrow -

The bone marrow is where immature immune cells, such as B and T lymphocytes, reside to
mature into B cells. After this maturation process, these cells migrate to other organ sites such
as the thyroid, spleen, and thymus to enter their final stages of differentiation and
development.



QUESTION: Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred from donor to
recipient? - ANSWER-Passive acquired immunity -

Active immune processes are the self-originating processes of the immune system that occur
from (acquired) or without (innate) prior exogenous simulation or exposure to foreign antigens.
Passive immunity is stabilized. Existing immune responses that are present with or without
simulation can arise or be created from oneself (innate) or acquired from an outside source
(e.g. donor antibodies).



QUESTION: What does T-cell activity cause in older adults? - ANSWER-Increased susceptibility
for infection -

As the human body ages, the immune system's effectiveness to coordinate responses to
pathogens and other foreign antigens wanes and the risk for disease increases.


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