Practice for CT Boards || QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS!!
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Course
CT Boards
Institution
CT Boards
normal body temperature correct answers 97.7 deg to 99.5 def F
pulse rate for adults correct answers 60-100 beats per min
pulse rate for children correct answers 70-120 beats per min
systolic blood pressure correct answers pressure within arteries during cardiac contraction and should be l...
Practice for CT Boards || QUESTIONS WITH
COMPLETE SOLUTIONS!!
normal body temperature correct answers 97.7 deg to 99.5 def F
pulse rate for adults correct answers 60-100 beats per min
pulse rate for children correct answers 70-120 beats per min
systolic blood pressure correct answers pressure within arteries during cardiac contraction
and should be less than 120 mm Hg
diastolic pressure correct answers measured during relaxation of heart and should be less than
80 mm Hg
normal respiration for adults correct answers 12 to 20 breaths per min
normal respiration for children correct answers 20-30 breaths per min
Explain the three stages of the cardiac cycle correct answers 1. Atrial systole: contraction of
LA and RA
-onset of P wave of ECG
2. Ventricular systole: contraction of LV and RV
-beginning of QRS complex on ECG
3. Complete cardiac diastole: period of relaxation after heart contraction
-corresponds to T wave on ECG
normal platelet count correct answers 140,000-440,000 micoliter of blood
D-timer testing correct answers utilized for diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary
embolism
-may indicate recently degraded blood clots
coumadin correct answers anticoagulant
-used to prevent formation of blood clots in veins and arteries
metformin correct answers Glucophage
-treat type 2 diabetes.
-patients typically instructed not to take metformin up to 2 days following at contrast
enhanced CT
Drip infusion correct answers volume of contrast agent is administered at a slow rate over a
long period
bolus injection correct answers CM pushed into blood stream at a rapid rate over a short
period of time
power injectors flow rates correct answers up to 5 to 6 mL/sec
flow rate for 22 gauge angiocatheters correct answers up to 3 mL/sec
flow rate for 20 gauge angiocatheters correct answers used when flow rate exceeds 3mL/sec
purpose of flushing the tubing with saline after CM injection correct answers 30-50ml
-allows for a reduction of contrast agent dose and helps eliminate the streaking
what to do if extravasation occurs? correct answers catheter should be removed and pressure
applied to site with warm,moist compress
positive CM correct answers radiopaque contrast media (RCM)
-iodine and barium
-water-soluble
-administered via bld stream, intrathecal space, joint space, or orally
osmolality correct answers agents propensity to cause fluid from outside the blood vessel to
move into the blood stream
Ionic contrast media correct answers -salts
-high-osmolar contrast media
ex: iothalamate meglumine (conray) and diatrizoate sodium (hypaque)
non-ionic contrast media correct answers non-salt
low-osmolar CM
,ex: iohexol (omni), iopamidol (iso), and isoversol (optiray)
high or low osmolar CM are less likely to produce adverse side effects correct answers LOW
Iso-osmolar CM correct answers same osmolality as blood, improve pt comfort and reduce
potential for side effects
ex: iodizanol (visipaque)
Enteral RCM correct answers administered orally or rectally to highlight GI
-barium, seen 30-90 min
negative CM correct answers air, gases, and water
what type of gas is used for CT colonography correct answers CO2
neutral CM correct answers administered to opacify SI during CT enteroclysis and CT
enterogrpahy
-very low density barium sulfate (VoLumen)
serum iodine concentration correct answers measure of amount of iodine within blood stream
-for adequate opacification during CT 2 to 8 mg/mL
flow rate for injection into central venous catheters correct answers 2 mL/sec or below
intrathecal administration correct answers CM injected directly into space surrounding spinal
cord
intra-articular administration correct answers CM injected directly into joint space
what are the four Hs to be paid attention before a patient undergoes administration of CM
correct answers 1. hx
2. hydration
3. have equipment and expertise ready
4. heads up: constant assessment of pts condition
pre tx regim for pts with allergies to CM correct answers combination of antihistamine and a
corticosteroid, taken at time intervals as early as 24 hrs before CM injection
contraindications to IV CM correct answers allergy to iodine
prior severe allergic reaction to CM
renal insufficiency/failure
nursing mothers and CM injection correct answers instructed to pump and discard breast milk
for 24 hrs after admin of CM to eliminate risk to infant
mild reactions to CM correct answers -N/V
-mild urticaria (hives)
-warmth or flushing
-altered tase
-sweats/chills
, -nasal stuffiness/sneezing
-anxiety
no tx
moderate reactions to CM correct answers -mild bronchospasm
-moderate to severe urticaria
-vasovagal response
-tachycardia from hypotension
tx for moderate adverse reactions correct answers bronchodilator inhaler for bronchospasm
diphenhydramine (benadryl) for urticaria
elevation of legs and IV fluids for hypotension
severe reactions to CM correct answers -profound hypotension
-laryngeal edema
-severe bronchospasm
-pulmonary edema
-cardiac arrhythmia
-seizure
-cardiopulmonary arrest
-death
delayed reactions to CM correct answers -urticaria
-pruritus (itchiness)
-N/V
-drowsiness
-headache
-fever/chills
what delayed reaction is the most common and occurs when? correct answers cutaneous, 3
hrs to 7 days after CM injection
what is CIN correct answers contrast-induced nephrotoxicity: considerable decline in renal
function that occur after a patient receives an IV CM
-signified by a marked increase in serum creatinine level
what are the risk factors for CIN correct answers diabetes
myeloma
advanced age
cardiovascular disease
what is the mm Al thickness filtration for CT correct answers 6 and 9 mm Al
inherent absorption efficiency correct answers for each detector element describes the ability
of the detector to capture transmitted X-ray quanta and produce the appropriate response
geometric efficiency correct answers for each detector array describes the spatial arrangement
of detector elements, including the amount of interspace between required between adjacent
elements
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