NEWEST CCRN EXAM/ CCRN ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS (FULL REVISED
EXAM) A NEW UPDATED VERSION |ALREADY
GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)
A 59 year old male is admitted complaining of chest pain and dyspnea. ST elevation
and T wave inversion were seen on the EKG in V2,V3 and V4. IV thrombolytic therapy
was started in ED. Indications of successful reperfusion would include all of the
following except:
(A) pain cessation
(B) decrease in CK or troponin
(C) reversal of ST segment elevation with return to baseline
(D) short runs of ventricular tachycardia - ANSWER(B)Coronary artery reperfusion due
to PCI or fibrinolysis results in an ELEVATION of creatinine kinase (CK) or troponin, not
decrease. The theory is that the return of blood flow distal to the occlusion can result in
'reperfusion injury' of the muscle, elevating cardiac biomarkers.
The other 3 choices are indicators of reperfusion: Pain cessation, reversal of ST
segment elevation with return to baseline, short runs of ventricular tachycardia.
Which of the following medication orders should the nurse question for the patient in
question 1-reperfusion question-patient having an MI?
(A) metoprolol (Lopressor)
(B) aspirin
(C) propranolol (Inderal)
(D) heparin - ANSWER(C) The patient in the scenario is having an acute anterior wall
MI. A beta blocker is beneficial for an acute MI as these agents decrease the work of
the heart and increase the threshold for ventricular fibrillation. Propranolol, although a
beta-andrenergic blocker like metoprolol, is NOT a cardioselective beta blocker. It
affects beta receptors in heart muscle AND lung tissue. Therefore, it is more likely to
cause bronchoconstriction than a cardioselective beta blocker.
The other 3- cardioselective beta blocker, antiplatelet, and anticoagulation-are indicated
in an acute MI.
If heart block develops while caring for the patient in question 1 (pt with an MI who went
through reperfusion from PCI or fibrinolytic therapy), which of the following would it most
likely be?
(A) sinoatrial block
(B) second degree, Type I
(C) second degree, Type II
,(D) third degree, complete - ANSWER(C) The patient is having an acute anterior MI,
which is generally due to LAD occlusion. The LAD supplies the HIS bundle, which could
result in a second-degree, type II heart block. The other 3 types are due to SA node or
AV node ischemia, which generally occur with an RCA occlusion — interior wall MI.
Appropriate drug therapy for dilated cardiomyopathy is aimed toward:
(A) decreasing contractility and decreasing preload and afterload
(B) decreasing contractility and increasing preload and afterload
(C) increasing contractility and increasing both preload and afterload
(D) increasing contractility and decreasing both preload and afterload - ANSWER(D)
Dilated cardiomyopathy is likely to result in systolic dysfunction, which decreases
contractility, causes compensatory arterial constriction , and results in a higher left
ventricular preload. To treat this, therapy is aimed at increasing contractility, decreasing
afterload (arterial constriction), and decreasing preload that is too high.😃
An 18 year old is admitted with a history of syncopal episode at the mall and has a
history of an eating disorder. The nurse notes a prolonged QT on the 12-lead EKG and
anticipates a reduction in an electrolyte to be the cause. Which of the following is
LEAST likely to cause this patient's problems?
(A) sodium
(B) magnesium
(C) potassium
(D) calcium - ANSWER(A) Abnormal sodium does NOT cause QT prolongation. In
contrast, a low magnesium, potassium, or calcium, may cause QT prolongation and
may result in TORSADES DE POINTES ventricular tachycardia and, if self-limiting,
transient syncopal episodes.
On the third day after admission for acute MI, a 67 year old male complains of chest
pain and develops a fever. The pain is worse with deep inspiration and is relieved when
he leans forward. There are nonspecific ST changes in the precordial leads of the EKG.
The nurse anticipates that the patient will most likely need treatment for:
(A) thoracic aneurysm
(B) Dressler's syndrome
(C) reinfarction
(D) pleuritis - ANSWER(B) The pain described in the scenario is typical of the pain
caused by pericarditis. Dressler's syndrome is the pericarditis that may result after an
acute MI.
A patient is admitted to the CCU after a PCI with stent. Femoral sheath is in place, site
is dry with no hematoma. He suddenly complains of severe back pain. Neck veins are
flat with head of bed 30 degrees, heart sounds are normal. Vital signs are BP 78/48, HR
124 and RR 26. What should the nurse suspect?
(A) cardiac tamponade
(B) retroperitoneal bleeding
(C) coronary artery dissection
, (D) acute closure of the stented coronary artery - ANSWER(B) Retroperitoneal bleeding
may cause signs of hypovolemia and hypovolemic shock as described in the scenario. It
may be a complication of a PCI if the femoral artery is the access site during the
procedure. Only this problem results in severe back pain; none of the other 3 choices
results in back pain
Your patient admitted with an NSTEMI develops acute shortness of breath, recurrence
of chest pain, and a loud systolic murmur at the apex of the heart. Which of the
following has most likely occurred?
(A) the patient has developed acute mitral valve regurgitation
(B) the patient has developed acute infarction
(C) the patient has developed acute mitral wave stenosis
(D) the patient has developed acute ventricular septal defect - ANSWER(A) The
location of the murmur, at the apex of the heart (midclavicular, 5th ICS), is one clue to
this answer. In addition, regurgitation occurs when the valve should be closed and the
mitral valve should be closed during systole. Mitral stenosis, choice (C), occurs when
the mitral valve is open. Additionally, mitral stenosis cannot be acute, it develops
gradually.
A patient has just returned from the OR after insertion of a VVI pacemaker. In order to
assess function of this pacemaker accurately, the nurse needs to understand that:
(A) both atrium and ventricle are paced and sensed and may either inhibit or pace in
response
to sensing
(B) the ventricle is paced, ventricular activity is sensed and pacing is inhibited in
response to
ventricular sensing.
(C) both the atrium and ventricle are paced, but only ventricular pacing can be inhibited
by a
sensed intrinsic ventricular impulse.
(D) the ventricle is paced in response to a sensed intrinsic atrial impulse or inhibited by
a sensed
intrinsic ventricular impulse. - ANSWER(B) the first letter indicates chamber paced
(ventricle). The second letter indicates chamber sensed (ventricle). The third letter
indicates the response to sensing (inhibited in response to sensing).
A patient complains of sudden dyspnea 5 days S/P acute MI (ST elevation in II, III, and
aVF, with ST depression in I and aVL). The patient is anxious, diaphoretic, and
hypotensive. Examination reveals the development of a loud holosystolic murmur at the
apex. What is the most likely cause of this patient's deterioration?
(A) right ventricular failure related to right ventricular MI
(B) ventricular septal defect
(C) left ventricular failure due to extension of MI
(D) acute mitral regurgitation due to papillary muscle rupture or dysfunction -
ANSWER(D) The scenario describes a patient having an acute inferior wall MI, which is
generally due to occlusion of the RCA. The RCA occlusion may result in papillary
