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CISSP OFFICIAL ISC2 PRACTICE TESTS (ALL DOMAINS) QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH SOLUTIONS 2024 $15.49   Add to cart

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CISSP OFFICIAL ISC2 PRACTICE TESTS (ALL DOMAINS) QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH SOLUTIONS 2024

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CISSP OFFICIAL ISC2 PRACTICE TESTS (ALL DOMAINS) QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH SOLUTIONS 2024

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  • August 17, 2024
  • 306
  • 2024/2025
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CISSP OFFICIAL ISC2 PRACTICE TESTS
(ALL DOMAINS) QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS WITH SOLUTIONS 2024
1. What is the final step of a quantitative risk analysis?



A. Determine asset value.

B. Assess the annualized rate of occurrence.

C. Derive the annualized loss expectancy.

D. Conduct a cost.benefit analysis. - ANSWER D.

The final step of a quantitative risk analysis is conducting a cost/benefit analysis to

determine whether the organisation should implement proposed countermeasure(s).



2. An evil twin attack that broadcasts a legitimate SSID for an unauthorised network is an example of
what category of threat?



A. Spoofing

B. Information disclosure

C. Repudiation

D. Tampering - ANSWER A.

Spoofing attacks use falsified identities. Spoofing attacks may use false IP addresses, email addresses,
names, or, in the case of an evil twin attack, SSIDs.



3. Under the Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA), what type of offenses do not require prompt
action by an Internet service provider after it receives a notification of

infringement claim from a copyright holder?



A. Storage of information by a customer on a provider's server

B. Caching of information by the provider

C. Transmission of information over the provider's network by a customer

,D. Caching of information in a provider search engine - ANSWER C.

The DMCA states that providers are not responsible for the transitory activities of

their users. Transmission of information over a network would qualify for this exemption. The other
activities listed are all nontransitory actions that require

remediation by the provider.



4. FlyAway Travel has offices in both the European Union and the United States and transfers personal
information between those offices regularly. Which of the seven

requirements for processing personal information states that organizations must inform individuals
about how the information they collect is used?



A. Notice

B. Choice

C. Onward Transfer

D. Enforcement - ANSWER A.

The Notice principle says that organizations must inform individuals of the information the organization
collects about individuals and how the organization will use it. These principles are based upon the Safe
Harbor Privacy Principles issued by the US Department of Commerce in 2000 to help US companies
comply with EU and Swiss privacy laws when collecting, storing, processing or transmitting data on EU or

Swiss citizens.



5. Which one of the following is not one of the three common threat modeling techniques?



A. Focused on assets

B. Focused on attackers

C. Focused on software

D. Focused on social engineering - ANSWER D.

The three common threat modeling techniques are focused on attackers, software,

and assets. Social engineering is a subset of attackers.

,6. Which one of the following elements of information is not considered personally identifiable
information that would trigger most US state data breach laws?



A. Student identification number

B. Social Security number

C. Driver's license number

D. Credit card number - ANSWER A.

Most state data breach notification laws are modeled after California's law, which

covers Social Security number, driver's license number, state identification card number, credit/debit
card numbers, bank account numbers (in conjunction with a PIN or password), medical records, and
health insurance information.



7. In 1991, the federal sentencing guidelines formalized a rule that requires senior executives to take
personal responsibility for information security matters. What is

the name of this rule?



A. Due diligence rule

B. Personal liability rule

C. Prudent man rule

D. Due process rule - ANSWER C.

The prudent man rule requires that senior executives take personal responsibility

for ensuring the due care that ordinary, prudent individuals would exercise in the same situation. The
rule originally applied to financial matters, but the Federal Sentencing Guidelines applied them to
information security matters in 1991.



8. Which one of the following provides an authentication mechanism that would be

appropriate for pairing with a password to achieve multifactor authentication?



A. Username

B. PIN

C. Security question

, D. Fingerprint scan - ANSWER D.

A fingerprint scan is an example of a "something you are" factor, which would be

appropriate for pairing with a "something you know" password to achieve multifactor authentication. A
username is not an authentication factor. PINs and security questions are both "something you know,"
which would not achieve multifactor

authentication when paired with a password because both methods would come from

the same category, failing the requirement for multifactor authentication.



9. What United States government agency is responsible for administering the terms of safe harbor
agreements between the European Union and the United States under the EU Data Protection Directive?



A. Department of Defense

B. Department of the Treasury

C. State Department

D. Department of Commerce - ANSWER D.

The US Department of Commerce is responsible for implementing the EU-US Safe

Harbor agreement. The validity of this agreement was in legal question in the wake of

the NSA surveillance disclosures.



10. Yolanda is the chief privacy officer for a financial institution and is researching privacy issues related
to customer checking accounts. Which one of the following laws is most

likely to apply to this situation?



A. GLBA

B. SOX

C. HIPAA

D. FERPA - ANSWER A.

The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) contains provisions regulating the privacy of

customer financial information. It applies specifically to financial institutions.

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