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OMM Semester 1 Savarese Practice Comlex Exam 1 Latest Update Questions and 100% Verified Correct Answers Actual Exam Guaranteed A+ Brand NEW!!!!!!! $20.49   Add to cart

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OMM Semester 1 Savarese Practice Comlex Exam 1 Latest Update Questions and 100% Verified Correct Answers Actual Exam Guaranteed A+ Brand NEW!!!!!!!

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OMM Semester 1 Savarese Practice Comlex Exam 1 Latest Update Questions and 100% Verified Correct Answers Actual Exam Guaranteed A+ Brand NEW!!!!!!!

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  • August 16, 2024
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  • 2024/2025
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  • OMM Semester 1 Savarese Practice
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OMM Semester 1 Savarese Practice Comlex
Exam 1 Latest Update 2024-2025 110 Questions
and 100% Verified Correct Answers Actual Exam
Guaranteed A+ Brand NEW!!!!!!!

A 13 YO male comes to the ED w/ a R wrist & elbow pain following a fall. He states that
he fell forward on his outstretched arm.


On examination, there is no evidence of deformity of the forearm or wrist. Upon
palpation he has exquisite pain between the extensor longus & abductor pollicis longus
tenduons at the radiocarpal joint. There is mild edema at the radiocarpal joint. He has
decreased flexion & extension at the wrist as well as decreased forearm supination.
There is a tender point located at the musculotendonous insetion of the lateral
epicondyle. X-Rays of the wrist & elbow are normal w/out evidence of fracture.


Which of the following techniques is contraindicated in this Pt?


A. ME to the upper extremity to increase supination
B. Counterstrain to the tenderpoint
C. Thoracic inlet releasee
D. HVLA to the R wrist to improve ROM
E. Posterior axillary fold technique - CORRECT ANSWER: Correct: Answer D: The
anatomic snuff box is located at the radiocarpal join & is bordered by the extensor
pollicis longus & abductor pollicis longus tendons. Since the Pt has pain at the anatomic
snuff box w/ some edema & decreased ROM at the wrist, he may have a fracture of the
scaphoid bone. HVLa is contraindicated in areas of the fracture.


Answer A: ME to the upper extremity to increase supination is not contraindicated
because this technique can be modified so that no stress is applied to the radiocarpal
joint. A cross extensor reflex ME could also be used. This would require treating the L
upper extremity in order to achieve a therapeutic effect in the R upper extremity.

,Answer B: Counterstrain is not contraindicated because this technique can also be
modified so that no stress is applied to the radiocarpal joint.


Answer C & E: Thoracic inlet release & posterior axillary fold techniques are indicated in
this scenario because both techniques will help open lymphatic channels & help
decrease the edema in this Pt's R upper extremity.


A 13 YO male comes to the ED w/ a R wrist & elbow pain following a fall. He states that
he fell forward on his outstretched arm.


Based on the Hx, what is the most likely Dx at the elbow?


A. Adducted ulna
B. Posterior radial head
C. Abducted ulna
D. Cubital tunnel syndrome
E. Medial epicondylitis - CORRECT ANSWER: Correct: Answer B: A posterior radial
head may present as a sharp pain at the wrist or elbow & may result from a fall on an
outstretched arm. On examination, the posterior radial head will resist anterior glide at
the elbow & the forearm will be restricted w/ supination.


Answer A, C, D, & E: The other answers listed are possible, however none are
associated specifically w/ a fall on an outstretched arm.


A 13 YO male comes to the ED w/ a R wrist & elbow pain following a fall. He states that
he fell forward on his outstretched arm.


On examination, there is no evidence of deformity of the forearm or wrist. Upon
palpation he has exquisite pain between the extensor longus & abductor pollicis longus
tenduons at the radiocarpal joint. There is mild edema at the radiocarpal joint. He has
decreased flexion & extension at the wrist as well as decreased forearm supination.
There is a tender point located at the musculotendonous insetion of the lateral
epicondyle. X-Rays of the wrist & elbow are normal w/out evidence of fracture.

,The Pt's wrist is splinted & he is told to follow up in 3 weeks. At the next follow up visit,
the Pt's pain has not improved. Which of the following would be the appropriate course
of action?


A. Prescribe a more effective pain med & have the child follow up in a week.


B. Order a bone scan


C. Imm - CORRECT ANSWER: Correct: Answer B: Since the Pt had pain at the
anatomic snuff box & symptoms have not improved in 3 weeks time, the Dx of fracture
should be considered. Although X-Rays of the wrist are normal, the Pt may still have a
small non-displaced scaphoid fracture. The scaphoid bone is the most common bone
fractured in the wrist & often presents w/ pain in the anatomic snuff box. X-Rays may be
normal for a week or longer. If a fracture is suspected, the practicioner may obtain a
second set of X-Rays, or a bone scan can be ordered. A bone scan will accurately ID a
fractured scaphoid.


Answer A: Putting the child on a pain med's w/out immobilizing the wrist is ill advised,
especially w/ the likelihood of a fracture.


Answer C: Appropriate management for a scaphoid wrist fracture is immobilization of
the wrist for 3 months. Due to the lack of a rich blood supply, the healing of a fractured
scaphoid is characteristically slow. Immobilizing the wrist for 2 weeks will not allow the
fracture to fully heal.


Answer D: Wrist sprains typically improve w/in a week's time. If the swellling & pain are
increased, the Dx of a fracture should be considered.


A 17 YO female complains of anterior knee pain that gets worse when she runs, jumps
or climbs stairs. PE reveals pain is reproducible on squatting & when the knee is flexed.
There is point tenderness on the undersurface of the patella & there is some patellar
crepitus.

, Decreasing myofascial restrictions in which muscle would most likely result in greatest
reduction in this Pt's symptoms?


A. Vastus lateralis
B. Semimembranosus
C. Semitendinosus
D. Vastus medialis
E. Quadriceps - CORRECT ANSWER: Correct: Answer A: Patello-femoral syndrome is
caused by a mal-tracking of the patella. Typically the patella tracks to far laterally, this is
usually due to a weak vastus medialis & a tight vastus lateralis. Decreasing myofascial
restrictions in the vastus lateralis would have the greatest effect on this Pt's symptoms.
Surgical Tx for patello-femoral syndrome consists of a lateral patella release.


Answer D: Decreasing myofascial restrictions in the vastus medialis could theoretically
worsen this condition.


Answer B, C & E: Decreasing myofascial restrictions in other muscles may help, but
considering the biomechanics of the problem, it will not have the greatest effect.


A 17 YO female complains of anterior knee pain that gets worse when she runs, jumps
or climbs stairs. PE reveals pain is reproducible on squatting & when the knee is flexed.
There is point tenderness on the undersurface of the patella & there is some patellar
crepitus.


The most likely Dx is:


A. Osgood-Shlatter's disease
B. Baker's cyst
C. Patellar tendonitis
D. Housemaid's knee
E. Patello-femoral syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER: Correct: Answer E: Patello-femoral
syndrome (AKA lateral femoral patella tracking syndrome) is among the most common

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