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TEST BANK FOR NSG 6001 LATEST ALL 82 CHAPTERS EXAM LATEST UPDATE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS| GRADED A+ $31.39   Add to cart

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TEST BANK FOR NSG 6001 LATEST ALL 82 CHAPTERS EXAM LATEST UPDATE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS| GRADED A+

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  • Course
  • NSG 6001
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  • NSG 6001

TEST BANK FOR NSG 6001 LATEST ALL 82 CHAPTERS EXAM LATEST UPDATE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS| GRADED A+

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  • August 13, 2024
  • 163
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • NSG 6001
  • NSG 6001
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jacklinedaniel
TEST BANK FOR NSG 6001 LATEST ALL 82 CHAPTERS
EXAM LATEST UPDATE 2024\2025 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS| GRADED A+

MULTIPLE CHOICE


1. Sandra is 70 years old and has just been diagnosed with leukemia. She is
complaining of bone and joint pain. Which type of leukemia is most likely the culprit?
A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
B. Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

C. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
- - ANS: D PTS: 1

2. Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?
A. Xenograft
B. Autologous
C. Allogeneic
D. Syngeneic
- - ANS: D PTS: 1

3. During treatment for anaphylaxis, which site is used for the initial injection of
epinephrine?
A. Antecubital vein
B. Abdomen
C. Upper lateral thigh
D. Deltoid
- - ANS: C PTS: 1

4. After the initial treatment for anaphylaxis, which medication should be added to
prevent late- phase anaphylactic reactions?
A. Albuterol
B. Diphenhydramine
C. H2 blocker
D. Corticosteroid
- - ANS: D PTS: 1

5. When analyzing synovial fluid, if it has 10,000 white blood cells/mcL with 80%
polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs), it may be indicative of which of the following
conditions?

,A. None, this is a normal result
B. Scleroderma
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Sickle cell disease
- - ANS: C PTS: 1

6. Which of the following disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs is a folic acid
antagonist?
A. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)
B. Etanercept (Enbrel)
C. Rituximab (Rituxan)
D. Anakinra (Kineret)
- - ANS: A PTS: 1

7. Which statement about HIV postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) for health-care workers
is the most accurate?

A. PEP treatment regimens contain two antiretroviral medications.
B. PEP should be started within 72 hours of exposure.
C. PEP follow-up requires renal function tests at 6 weeks after beginning PEP.
D. PEP will prevent potential hepatitis C infection, if present.
- - ANS: B PTS: 1

8. For which patient would the clinician recommend annual HIV testing?
A. One who is in a mutually monogamous relationship that engages in anal sex
B. One who is a migrant worker
C. One who is diagnosed with viral hepatitis
D. One who is pregnant with second child from another male
- - ANS: C PTS: 1

9. Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show
a falling viral load. What does this indicate?
A. A favorable prognostic trend
B. Disease progression
C. The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s medications
D. Drug resistance mutations
- - ANS: A PTS: 1

10. A patient with atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin (Coumadin) and has an
international normalized ratio (INR) of 4.0 with no active bleeding. How should the
clinician manage this patient?
A. Stop the medication for 1 week, and then repeat the INR.
B. Withhold 1 or more days of anticoagulant therapy.
C. Restart therapy at a lower dose immediately.

,D. Slowly increase the dose over 3 days.
- - ANS: B PTS: 1

11. The patient with severe iron deficiency anemia is eating ice chips. Which term
should the clinician use to document this finding?
A. Cheilosis
B. Anorexia
C. Hypochromasia
D. Pica
- - ANS: D PTS: 1

12. As a rule of thumb, the estimated level of hematocrit is how many times the value of
the hemoglobin?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five

- - ANS: B PTS: 1

13. What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?
A. Anemia of chronic disease
B. Sideroblastic anemia
C. Iron-deficiency anemia
D. Pernicious anemia
- - ANS: C PTS: 1

14. Which symptom is the cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis?
A. Pain
B. Nausea
C. Light-headedness
D. Palpitations
- - ANS: A PTS: 1

15. Which phrase describes rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?
A. Localized synovial joint destruction
B. Chronic exocrine dysfunction
C. Systemic inflammatory disease
D. Antibody-mediated cellular cytotoxicity response
- - ANS: C PTS: 1

16. Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the
severity and course of an inflammatory process?
A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

, B. White blood cell count
C. Polymorphonuclear cells
D. C-reactive protein (CRP)
- - ANS: D PTS: 1

17. Infectious mononucleosis results from an acute infection with which of the
following?
A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Acute HIV infection
C. Guillain-Barré
D. Hepatitis
- - ANS: A PTS: 1

18. Which condition is the most common cause of generalized musculoskeletal pain in
women ages 20 to 55?
A. Chronic fatigue syndrome
B. Anemia
C. Fibromyalgia syndrome
D. Sports-related injuries

- - ANS: C PTS: 1

19. After returning from visiting his grandchildren in Connecticut, George, age 59,
complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia. He reports having
discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. Which disease should the
clinician be considering?
A. Rubella
B. Lyme disease
C. Fibromyalgia syndrome
D. Shingles
- - ANS: B PTS: 1

20. Dryness of the eyes and mouth is typical of which condition?
A. Sjögren’s syndrome
B. Allergic reaction
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Sideroblastic anemia
- - ANS: A PTS: 1

21. Exposure to ultraviolet (UV)-B and UV-A rays is a triggering factor for acute
exacerbations of which condition?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Gout
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus

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