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Women's Health and Peds/ APEA Peds Questions and Answers 2024
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Women's Health and Peds/ APEA Peds Questions and Answers 2024
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Women's Health and Peds/ APEA Peds Questionsand Answers 2024
Which of the following statements about prophylaxis for newborn eye infections is false?
a.The two major pathogens for newborn eye infections are Neisseria gonorrheae and Chlamydia
trachomatis.
b.Gonorrhea and Chlamydia conjunctivitis are the most common causes of blindness worldwide.There is
not increased risk for ophthalmia neonatorum if eye prophylaxis is delayed for the first hour or two. Eye
contact during this period is considered important in the maternal-infant attachment process.
c.Because of the rapid onset of ophthalmia neonatorum, administration of silver nitrate or erythromycin
should take priority over family bonding and initiation of breastfeeding.
d.Erythromycin is preferred over silver nitrate because it provides coverage against the two most
common pathogens.
c.Because of the rapid onset of ophthalmia neonatorum, administration of silver nitrate or erythromycin
should take priority over family bonding and initiation of breastfeeding.
Which of the following infants is least at risk for neonatal hypoglycemia?
a. the infant of an opioid-abusing mother.
b.An infant who had intrapartum fetal monitoring findings suggestive of perinatal acidemia.
c.The infant of a mother with diabetes mellitus.
d.The infant of a mother with gestational diabetes.
the infant of an opioid-abusing mother
During the first few weeks of pregnancy, progesterone is secreted by the:
,a.endometrium
b.trophoblasts
c.corpus luteum
d.placenta
Progesterone is essential in preparing the uterus for implantation of the fertilized ovum and maintaining
the pregnancy. Corpus Lutem does this
At 36-week visit, a patient tells you that she is having nightmares that include labor as well as fears of
having an abnormal baby. Your best response is to:
a.encourage her to tell you more about the nightmares and her fears.
b.tell her there is nothing to worry about because most babies are fine.
c.reassure her that there are dangers about which we all have to worry.
d.make an appointment for her with a mental health nurse practitioner.
encourage her to tell you more about the nightmares and her fears.It is the healthcare provider's role to
listen and facilitate a patient's expression of feelings and to provide a nonjudgemental environment.
Initial management of constipation in pregnancy should include suggestions for:
a.limitation of calcium-rich foods.
b.use of a laxative.
c.increased intake of fiber and fluids
d.increased protein intake
increased intake of fiber and fluids. The first line of treatment for constipation is to increase fluids and
fiber. Other strategies are to recommend prune juice or a warm beverage in the mornings and to
encourage exercise and stool softeners.
Normal findings on speculum and pelvic examination of a pregnant woman include:
,a.a firm, slightly enlarged cervix A normal finding in pregnancy is Chadwick's sign--the changing of the
color of the cervix to a bluish hue.
b.bluish color of the cervix
c.pale vaginal mucosa
d.an open cervical os
bluish color of the cervix; Chadwick's sign--the changing of the color of the cervix to a bluish hue.
A primigravida at 13.5 weeks states that she is concerned because she has not felt the baby move yet.
Your response should be which of the following?
a. "Most women with their first pregnancy do not feel movement until around 20 weeks."
b."I will order an ultrasound just to be sure everything is fine."
c."I would like you to return in a week so we can recheck it."
d."You are worrying too much, just relax."
"Most women with their first pregnancy do not feel movement until around 20 weeks." Quickening is the
maternal perception of fetal movement, which usually occurs between 18 and 20 weeks for primiparas;
it occurs earlier for multigravidas, at about 14-18 weeks.
The CDC recommends screening for group B streptococcus (GBS) at what point?
a.At 35-37 weeks gestation
b.At the first prenatal visit.
c.When labor starts.
d.At 20 weeks gestation.
At 35-37 weeks gestation. Group B streptococcus (GBS) screening is performed at 35-37 weeks by
swabbing the vaginal introitus and rectal specimens.
A primigravida patient asks about the value of childbirth preparation classes during the second-trimester
visit. You tell her that the evidence indicates that they are associated with:
, a.less use of IVs in labor.
b.improved parenting skills.
c.reduced use of analgesics/anesthesia during labor.
d.need for analgesics and anesthetics during labor.
decreased cesarean rates.
c.reduced use of analgesics/anesthesia during labor. Preparation for childbearing ultimately aids in
reducing the d.need for analgesics and anesthetics during labor.
A pregnant woman who is 5' 3" tall has a prepregnancy weight of 115 lb. Which of the following
represents the most appropriate weight for her by the end of her pregnancy?
a.165 lb
b.120 lb
c.140 lb
d.125 lb
140; Weight gain recommendations in pregnancy; for underweight women (BMI less than 18.5), 1.0-1.3
lb per week in the second and third trimesters for a total of 28-40 lb; for normal weight women (BMI
18.5-24.9), 0.8-1.0 lb. per week during the second and third trimesters for a total of 25-35 lb; for
overweight women (BMI 30.0 or higher), 0.4-0.6 lb per week in the second and third trimesters for a
total of 11-20 lbs.
A patient at 37 weeks calls to say she feels like the baby is moving less. After further inquiry, you decide
to send her for an NST. When she asks what that is, you explain that it is an assessment of fetal well-
being based on:
a.fetal heart rate response to fetal movement
b.breathing movements.
c.evaluation of body movements.
d.fetal body tone.
Fetal heart rate response to fetal movement. A nonstress test (NST) is a method to assess fetal well-
being by observing the fetal heart rate response to fetal movement.
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