WGU D115 master set Advanced Pathophysiology for
the Advanced Practice Nurse 300 questions and
answers
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? - Prader-Willi
syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Normally, a portion of
this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome, the
chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - Prevent infection of the injured
tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged
tissue so the body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when
considering white blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils - Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute inflammation, and an
increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the
antigen or after immunization against the antigen? - Active-acquired immunity or
naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to a live
pathogen and develops the disease or becomes immune as a result of a vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically
predisposed to develop allergies? - The greater quantities of IgE in atopic individuals
make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates the immune
response to allergens; therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger the response can
be to an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to fight the war.
A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccinations.
Which statement about vaccines should the professional include in the presentation? -
Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial effects of a vaccine
may diminish over time, and boosters improve protection against disease.
,Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease? - Pathogenicity refers to an
organism's ability to create or produce disease.
What are signs and symptoms of Cri du Chrat Syndrome? - DNA deletion of
chromosome 5. low birth weight, mental retardation, microencephaly, and cat like cry
What are the 3 layers of human defense? - Physical, Mechanical, biochemical barriers
What happens in the physical layer of human defense. - protect against damage and
infection are composed of tightly associated epithelial cells including those of the skin
and of the membranous sheets lining the gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory
tracts.
What is the second line of defense and the process? - Inflammatory response- rapid
and nonspecific, protective response to cellular injury from any cause. It can occur only
in vascularized tissue.
How do acute and chronic inflammation differ? - Acute- Short duration, 8-10 days from
onset to healing.
Chronic inflammation- can be a continuation of acute inflammation that last 2 weeks or
longer. It can also occur as a distinct process without much preceding acute
inflammation
What three systemic changes associated with acute inflammatory response - Fever,
leukocytosis, plasma protein synthesis
How does the inflammatory response differ in neonates? - Neonates often have
transiently depressed inflammatory function, particularly neutrophil chemotaxis and
alternative complement activity.
Hypersensitivity Response- I vs II - I - IgE mediated- primary cause of common
allergies. Binds with mast cells which release histamine. (initiates allergic reaction).
Histamine release leads to bronchial smooth muscle contraction, bronchoconstriction,
and immune response
II- tissue specific- wrong blood type administered or hemolytic disease of the
A vaccine is what kind of immunity - Adaptive
Active immunization is produced by - an individual in response to an antigen or after
immunization.
What are some common diseases that are categorized as multifactorial in nature? -
HTN, CAD, Cancers, Diabetes, Obesity, Alzheimer's Disease
Symptoms of Chronic suppurative otitis media - Chronic suppurative otitis media- will
have hearing loss, purulent drainage, ear pain.
,What is Gate Control Theory - pain transmission is modulated by a balance of impulses
conducted to the spinal cord where cells in the
substantia gelatinosa function as a "gate".
What is the parathyroid gland responsible for - produces parathyroid hormone (PTH)-
which is the single most important factor in the regulation of
serum calcium concentration.
What is TH responsible for - TH is
responsible for growth, maturation, and function of cells, body
systems throughout the body and across the life span.
Symptoms of hypothyroidism - decreased energy, lethargy, heat intolerance,
lowered basal temperature, diastolic HTN, MYXEDEMA
one of the most important contributors to
insulin resistance and DM - Obesity
The definition of legal blindness is the best corrected vision of 20/100.
true or false - FALSE
The definition of legal blindness is the best corrected vision of 20/200.
A male patient presents with sinus congestion, clear nasal discharge, and a cough that
is worse when he is reclined.
What is the probable condition causing these symptoms? - Allergic rhinitis is marked by
sinus congestion, clear nasal discharge, post nasal drip that causes a sore throat, and
cough that is worse when supine.
unilateral tonsillar enlargement during acute tonsillitis is suggestive of - Unilateral
tonsillar enlargement during acute tonsillitis is suggestive of a tonsillar abscess. If the
patient does not have trouble swallowing, is drooling, or has a muffled voice, then it
could be an enlarged tonsil rather than an abscess. Because of the risk of airway
obstruction, it is imperative that tonsillar abscess is ruled out during the assessment.
Which two statements are true regarding epinephrine? - Dopamine is the precursor of
both epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Epinephrine induces general vasodilation because of the predominance of β-adrenergic
receptors in the muscle vasculature.
Which structure is specifically involved in pain transmission? - The substantia
gelatinosa, which is at the tip of the posterior horn of the spinal cord, is directly involved
in pain transmission.
Previousquestion
, Which mechanism of heat loss involves electromagnetic waves? - Radiation is heat loss
due to magnetic waves from surfaces of higher temperatures to ambient air that is
cooler.
Which theory of pain best describes phantom limb pain? - The neuromatrix theory
proposes that the brain produces patterns of nerve impulses drawn from various inputs,
such as genetic, psychological, and cognitive experiences, and suggests that pain may
be felt in the absence of input from the body. This theory would explain the phantom
limb pain the woman is experiencing.
What is the most critical aspect of correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and
establishing its cause? - Exploring health history is critical in an individual with a seizure
disorder. The history often provides information such as childhood seizures or a
previous head injury which leads to the definitive diagnosis. The history also guides
further testing to determine if systemic causes might be producing seizure activity.
Which symptoms exhibited by a patient are consistent with Alzheimer disease? -
memory loss, impaired judgment, personality changes, and a reduced ability to care for
herself.
why it is important to ask about a family history of Alzheimer disease. - Known genetic
mutations increase the risk of Alzheimer disease. Specific mutations lead to early-onset
Alzheimer disease, whereas other mutations are associated with late-onset. The patient
does not have relatives with the condition.
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? - Sex-
Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome
has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? -
Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading
known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - Chorionic villus sampling
(CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of
prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing
that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed between
weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that
evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester, between
weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing
gene? - Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA
deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome.
