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NURSING 660 Hesi Pharmacology (2021 VERSION) Hesi Pharmacology $4.49   Add to cart

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NURSING 660 Hesi Pharmacology (2021 VERSION) Hesi Pharmacology

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HESI Pharmacology (2021 Edition) 1. Before administering cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) to a client with a postoperative infection, what is the most important drug allergy for the nurse to assess? - Options: A) Penicillins. B) Aminoglycosides. C) Erythromycins. D) Su...

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  • August 2, 2024
  • 42
  • 2024/2025
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EXAMINER001
HESI Pharmacology (2021 Edition)
1. Before administering cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) to a client with a postoperative infection, what is the most important drug allergy for the nurse to assess? - Options: A) Penicillins. B) Aminoglycosides. C) Erythromycins. D) Sulfonamides. - Correct Answer: A) Penicillins. - Explanation: There is a potential cross-allergy between penicillins and cephalosporins like cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex), making it crucial to check for penicillin allergy before giving this medication.
2. What is the primary nursing action when caring for a client receiving cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) for chemotherapy? - Options: A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion. B) Assess the client for numbness and tingling of extremities. C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations. D) Monitor the client's urine pH for increased acidity. - Correct Answer: C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations. - Explanation: Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) affects rapidly dividing cells and can cause mucosal ulcerations, so monitoring the oral mucosa is critical to detect antimetabolite toxicity.
3. When assessing an adolescent who overdosed on acetaminophen (Tylenol), where should the nurse primarily assess for pain? - Options: A) Flank. B) Abdomen. C) Chest. D) Head. - Correct Answer: B) Abdomen. - Explanation: Acetaminophen overdose can lead to liver damage, so it's essential
to check for pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, indicating potential liver injury.
Here are the paraphrased versions of questions 4 through 10, including all answer choices:
4. An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop)
to prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client? - Options: A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure. B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise. C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull. D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise. - Correct Answer: A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure. - Explanation: Scopolamine should be applied at least 4 hours before departure to
allow time for peak onset of action. The patch lasts 72 hours, so changing it every other day (B) is unnecessary. The recommended site for the patch is behind the ear,
not at the base of the skull (C). Alcohol should be avoided while using scopolamine (D) due to potential CNS depression.
5. The nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with a client in the immediate postoperative period. The client will receive morphine 1 mg IV per hour basal rate with 1 mg IV every 15 minutes per PCA to total 5 mg IV maximally per hour. What assessment has the highest priority before initiating the PCA pump? - Options: A) The expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump. B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations. C) The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure. D) The client's subjective and objective signs of pain. - Correct Answer: B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations. - Explanation: Respiratory depression is a critical side effect of morphine, so assessing respiratory status is the highest priority before starting PCA. While other assessments are important, they do not pose immediate life-threatening risks as respiratory depression does.
6. A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most commonly prescribed for a client with which condition? - Options: A) Glaucoma. B) Hypertension. C) Heart failure. D) Asthma. - Correct Answer: C) Heart failure. - Explanation: Beta-1 agonists primarily affect the heart, increasing heart rate and
contractility, and are commonly used in conditions like heart failure (C) to improve
cardiac output.
7. A female client with rheumatoid arthritis takes ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg PO 4 times a day. To prevent gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol (Cytotec) 100 mcg PO is prescribed. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in client teaching? - Options: A) Use contraception during intercourse. B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an empty stomach. C) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation. D) Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin. - Correct Answer: A) Use contraception during intercourse. - Explanation: Misoprostol (Cytotec) is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its potential to cause miscarriage, so contraception is crucial to prevent unintended pregnancy (A). Taking Cytotec with food (B) is recommended to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Oral fluid intake (C) and timing of Cytotec with Motrin (D) are important but not as critical as preventing pregnancy.

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