Women's Health (PA Easy) a Questions With Correct Answers
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Course
Women\'s Health
Institution
Women\'s Health
Q 97.1: A 34-year-old woman presents for her obstetrical checkup. She is a G2P1 and her pregnancy is uncomplicated to date. During her visit, what is the most important predictor of fetal well-being?
A Normal maternal vitals and fetal activity
B Maternal weight gain and fetal activity
C Abse...
Women's Health (PA Easy) a Questions With Correct Answers
Q 97.1: A 34-year-old woman presents for her obstetrical checkup. She is a G2P1 and her pregnancy is uncomplicated to date. During her visit, what is the most important predictor of fetal well-being?
A Normal maternal vitals and fetal activity B Maternal weight gain and fetal activity C Absence of contractions and fetal activity D Normal maternal vitals and absence of contractions E Maternal weight gain and normal maternal vitals - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: A
Maternal vitals are a sign of maternal well-being; combined with normal fetal activity, this gives the best predictive value for fetal well-being without direct fetal surveillance.
Q 97.2: How many types of primary osteoporosis are there?
A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 E 5 - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: B Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone mass, which increases the fragility of bones and leads to an increased risk of fracture. Osteoporosis is defined as being either primary or secondary and primary osteoporosis is further broken down into Type 1 and Type 2. Type 1 is related to decreased hormone levels - estrogen in women
and testosterone in men, and is sometimes referred to as "postmenopausal osteoporosis." It is six times more common in women and results in loss of trabecular bone. Type 1 primary osteoporosis often presents with vertebral compression fractures or fractures of the distal radius after a fall. Type 2 primary osteoporosis is sometimes referred to as "senile osteoporosis" and generally occurs in patients over 70 years of age. It is twice as common in women as men and occurs due to a diminished capacity to make new bone. The most common types of fractures found in this type of osteoarthritis are hip and pelvic fractures. Secondary osteoporosis occurs at a somewhat higher rate in men versus women and is caused by some other medical condition that produces bone loss. Common causes include long-term steroid use, various endocrine abnormalities, and neoplastic diseases such as multiple myeloma.
Q 97.3: An 18-year-old G1P0 presents for evaluation of her amenorrhea. Her LMP was 2 months ago. Her HCG is positive, and she has been having vaginal spotting x 2 weeks. Her ultrasound reveals an intrauterine heterogeneous echogenic mass, without fetus or placenta. What is the most likely diagnosis? A Threatened abortion B Missed abortion C Ectopic pregnancy D Hydatidiform mole E Early intrauterine pregnancy - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: D The classic signs for a mole are a heterogenous mass without the placenta or fetus, and
vaginal spotting is present all of the time. The presence of the mass intrauterine without fetus or placenta rules out ectopic and IUP, and therefore threatened abortion. Missed abortion is not echogenic.
Q 97.4: A 25-year-old woman and her husband have been using condoms and spermicidal foam for the 8 months since the birth of their baby. She plans to wean the baby from the breast sometime between a year and 18 months of age, but would like to begin a "less messy" method of contraception. Prior to her pregnancy she took combination oral contraceptives for several years without any difficulties. Which of the following is an appropriate recommendation for this woman?
A "Breast feeding alone will prevent pregnancy until the baby is weaned." B "Condoms and spermicide are your only option until you wean the baby." C "Progestin-only pills are recommended for women who are breast feeding." D "A vaginal ring will not affect your milk production." E "You can start back on the same oral contraceptive you took before." - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: C The progestin-only pill is ideal for breast feeding mothers because this pill does not interfere with lactation the way combination pills do.
Breast feeding (A) is reasonably effective in preventing pregnancy only as long as breast milk is the infant's only source of nutrition. Condoms and spermicide (B) are options, but not the only ones for breastfeeding couples. A vaginal ring (D) does decrease the amount of milk production somewhat, but may be an effective option if lactation is well established. Combination oral contraceptives (E) are not recommended for breastfeeding women.
Q 97.5: A woman who is pregnant suffered a spontaneous abortion at 12 weeks gestation. She is now a G2P1Ab1 and is Rh negative. When should she receive her next Rhogam (Rho D immune globulin) shot?
A Now B In one month C At conception of her next pregnancy D 28 weeks gestation of next pregnancy E After delivery of her next viable infant - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: A Placental implantation occurred and separated with the spontaneous miscarriage. Therefore, there is a slight chance of isoimmunization, so Rhogam should be given now
so that the mother does not develop antigens that can cross the placenta during the first
half of the next pregnancy. Q 97.6: A 37-year-old G3P2 female at 39 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery unit complaining of abdominal pain. Laboratory evaluation reveals anemia coagulopathy that is felt to be consumptive. What is the most likely diagnosis to have caused this?
A Placental abruption B Placenta previa C Preeclampsia D Labor E Pre-existing anemia - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: A Reproductive placental abruption is the most common cause of coagulopathy in pregnancy; the hemorrhage may be concealed and is not always evident. In the presence of pain, anemia, and coagulopathy, abruption should be assumed until proved
otherwise.
Q 97.7: You are providing care for a 21-year-old G1P1 who delivered a 3990 gram infant by normal spontaneous vaginal delivery. After delivery, she continues to bleed vaginally, more than is expected for routine delivery. What is the most likely cause of her hemorrhage?
A cervical laceration B lateral vaginal wall laceration C retained placenta D uterine atony E placenta acreata - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: D Uterine atony continues to be the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, even
though all of the answer choices may cause it.
Q 97.8: A 29-year-old G2 P1 who is term requests induction. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has been bothered by significant, poor quality contractions, which have caused her pain and interfered with her sleep. An elective induction is considered safe when the Bishops score is greater than what number?
A 6 B 7 C 8 D 9 E 10 - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: C A Bishop score greater than 8 is considered a positive predictor for safe delivery in a term pregnancy.
Q 97.9: A 27-year-old G3P2 at 39 weeks gestation has been in labor for 6 hours. Her membranes ruptured 3 hours ago and revealed a large amount of clear fluid. She has previously delivered a 7 pound 2 ounce infant. She is having good quality contractions, and has been completely dilated and pushing for 55 minutes. The fetal head is +4, FHT 128. What would be the most appropriate management at this time? A Continue pushing B Instrument delivery C Emergency caesarean section D Non emergent caesarean section E Epidural pain control - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: A This is a multigravida patient with an adequate pelvis. She is making steady progress and there are no signs of maternal or fetal distress, so continued labor management is expected.
Q 97.10: A 53-year-old woman presents to clinic complaining of amenorrhea, irritability, and hot flashes for 6 months. She would like to try hormone replacement therapy. You are counseling her about possible risks versus benefits. Which of the following is a benefit of combined estrogen progestin therapy?
A A decreased risk of breast cancer B A decreased risk of myocardial infarction C A decreased risk of stroke D A decrease in somatic symptoms E A decreased rate of cognitive decline - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: D The WHI study showed increase chance of cardiovascular risks and breast cancer, and showed no improvement in prevention of cognitive decline.
Q 97.11: A 24-year-old G2P2 delivered a viable female infant (8 lb 4 oz) via caesarean section, after a failed 20-hour induction for post date pregnancy. On day 2, she developed a postoperative fever of 101F (38.3C). She had slightly increasing abdominal
cramping and pain, no change in loci, is voiding well, and has passed flatulence. Her WBC is 19,000. What is the mostly likely cause for her fever?
A Urinary tract infection B Ileus C Metritis D Atelectasis E Tubo-ovarian abscess - ANSWER-The Correct Answer is: C The patient is passing urine and flatulence well, making choices A and B less likely. Fever greater the 38C is the most important indicator of metritis. Fever is not usually indicative of mild atelectasis. Tubo-ovarian abscess is usually a complication from PID. *The patient has many risk factors for metritis including c-sect, prolonged induction, and
fever.*
Q 97.12: A 65-year-old female presents to clinic for her annual pap smear. She is in good health but has mild hyperlipidemia, which is controlled with diet. She had a hysterectomy more than 10 years ago for dysfunctional uterine bleeding. How often should she have a pap smear?
A Annually
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