NR507 Midterm Exam 2024 | Advanced
Pathophysiology Midterm Exam |
Answered and Graded A+
When a nurse observes post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as a diagnosis on a patient, which principle will the nurse remember?
Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is primarily caused by - Correct Answer - antigen-antibody complex deposition in the
glomerular capillaries and inflammatory damage
A 30 year old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is - Correct Answer - acute glomerulonephritis
A 45 year old male presents with oliguria. He is diagnosed with chronic glomerulonephritis. The nurse knows oliguria is related to - Correct Answer - thickening of the glomerular membrane and decreased renal blood flow A 42 year old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he loses a lot of blood. the nurse realizes he is in acute renal failure caused by - Correct Answer - inadequate renal blood flow
A 56 year old male presents with flank pain and polyuria. Tests reveal that he has an enlarged prostate. which of the following types of renal failure should the nurse monitor for as it is the most likely to occur - Correct Answer - Postrenal
A 60 year old male is diagnosed with renal failure. while the nurse
is reviewing lab results, which of the following lab values would be
most consistent with this diagnosis - Correct Answer - Elevated plasma creatinine level
A 45 year old female presents with hypertension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and anemia. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. When the patient asks what caused this anemia, how should the nurse respond? Your anemia is caused by - Correct Answer - inadequate production of erythropoietin
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