100% satisfaction guarantee Immediately available after payment Both online and in PDF No strings attached
logo-home
NUR 524 Exam 3 Questions and Answers $30.49   Add to cart

Exam (elaborations)

NUR 524 Exam 3 Questions and Answers

 0 view  0 purchase
  • Course
  • Institution

NUR 524 Exam 3 Questions and Answers

Preview 4 out of 35  pages

  • January 17, 2024
  • 35
  • 2023/2024
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
avatar-seller
QUESTIONS FROM FITZGERALD 4TH EDITION
Anal Fissure
 The most common anal fissure location is
o Posterior midline of the anus
 Rectal bleeding associated with anal fissure is usually described by the patient as
o Drops of blood noticed when wiping
 A 62 year old woman who reports frequent constipation is diagnosed with an anal
fissure. First line therapy includes all of the following except
o Intra-anal corticosteroids
o stool-bulking supplements
o high fiber diet
o periodic use of oral mineral oil
 A 54 year old man with an anal fissure responds inadequately to dietary intervention and
standard therapy during the past 2 weeks. Additional treatment options include all of the
following except
o Rubber band ligation of the lesion
o Intra-anal nitroglycerine ointment
o botulinum toxicum injection to the internal anal sphincter
o surgical sphincterotomy
 In a patient who presents with a history consistent with anal fissure but with notation of
an atypical anal lesion, alternative diagnoses to consider include all of the following
except
o C difficile colitis
o condyloma acuminate
o Crohn’s disease
o anal squamous cell carcinoma
 Which of the following is the most likely patient report with anal fissure
o “I have anal pain for up to 1-2 hours after I have a bowel movement”
 Long term, recurrent high-dose oral use of mineral oil may lead to a deficiency in
o Vitamin A
Hemorrhoids
 Rectal bleeding associated with hemorrhoids is usually described as
o Streaks of bright red blood on the stool
 Therapy for hemorrhoids include all of the following except
o Low fat diet
o weight control
o topical corticosteroids
o the use of stool softener

,  The NP is advising a 58 year old woman about the benefits of a high fiber diet. Which of
the following foods provides the highest fiber content
o 1 cup of cooked oatmeal
 A 62 year old man presents with a 2 month history of noting a "bit of dark blood mixed in
with my stool most days." PE reveals external hemorrhoids, no rectal mass, and a small
amount of dark brown stool on the examining digit. In office fecal occult blood test is
positive, and hemogram reveals a microcytic hypochromic anemia. The next best step in
his care is to
o Refer to gastroenterology practice for colonoscopy
 Risk factors for the development of hemorrhoidal symptoms include all of the following
except
o Insertive partner in anal intercourse
o prolonged sitting
o chronic diarrhea
o excessive alcohol use
 Which of the following best describes Grade III internal hemorrhoids
o The hemorrhoids prolapse upon defecation and must be reduced manually
 Which of the following patients should be evaluated for possible surgical intervention for
hemorrhoids?
o A 44 year old woman who has internal and external hemorrhoids with
recurrent prolapse
Acute Appendicitis
 All of the following are typically noted in a young adult with the diagnosis of acute
appendicitis except
o Marked febrile response
o epigastric pain
o positive obturator sign
o rebound tenderness
 A 26 year old man presents with acute abdominal pain. As part of the evaluation for
acute appendicitis, you order a WBC with differential and anticipate the following
o Total WBC 16.5, Neutrophils 66%, Bands 8%, Lymphocytes 22%
 You see a 72 year old woman who reports vomiting and abdominal cramping occurring
over the past 24 hours. In evaluating a patient with suspected appendicitis, the clinician
considers that
o The presentation can differ according to the anatomical location of the
appendix
 The psoas sign can be best described as abdominal pain elicited by
o Passive extension of the hip
 The obturator sign can be best described as abdominal pain elicited by
o Passive flexion and internal rotation of the hip

,  An 18 year old man presents with periumbilical pain, vomiting, and abdominal cramping
over the past 48 hours. Physical exam reveals rebound tenderness, and laboratory
analysis shows the presence of bandemia and WBC 28. To support the diagnosis of acute
appendicitis with suspected appendiceal rupture, you consider obtaining the following
abdominal imaging study
o Computed tomography (CT) scan
 Which of the following WBC forms is an ominous finding in the presence of severe
bacterial infection
o Metamyelocyte
 Which of the following best represents the peak ages for occurrence of acute
appendicitis?
o 10 to 30 years
 Clinical findings most consistent with appendiceal rupture include all of the following
except
o Abdominal discomfort less than 48 hours in duration
o fever greater than 102 F
o palpable abdominal mass
o marked leukocytosis with WBC > 20
 Which of the following imaging studies potentially exposes the patient being evaluated
for abdominal pain to the lowest ionizing radiation burden?
o Ultrasound
 Commonly encountered diagnoses other than acute appendicitis can include which of the
following in a 28 year old with a 2 day history of lower abdominal pain and with right
sided pain slightly worse than left? (More than one can apply)
o Constipation, pelvic inflammatory disease, ectopic pregnancy
 Rebound tenderness is best described as abdominal pain that worsens with
o Release of deep palpation at the site of discomfort
 Abdominal palpation that yields rebound tenderness is also known as a positive
___________ sign
o Blumberg’s
 Which of the following findings would you expect to encounter in a 33 year old man with
appendiceal abscess?
o Dullness to percussion in the abdominal right lower quadrant
Colorectal Cancer
 Which of the following is true concerning colorectal cancer?
o Later disease presentation often includes iron-deficiency anemia
 According to the American Cancer Society recommendations, which of the following is
the preferred method for annual colorectal cancer screening in a 51 year old man?
o Fecal occult blood test
 Which of the following is most likely to be noted in a person with colorectal cancer?
o Few symptoms

,  Which of the following does not increase a patient’s risk of developing colorectal cancer?
o Long-term aspirin therapy
 According to the American Cancer Society data, colorectal cancer is the number __
cause of cancer death in men and women
o 3
Colonic Diverticulosis
 Colonic diverticulosis most commonly occurs in the walls of the
o Sigmoid colon
 Approximately what percent of the population will develop diverticulosis by the time they
reach 50 years of age
o 33%
 Which of the following is most consistent with the presentation of a patient with colonic
diverticulosis?
o Few or no symptoms
 Which of the following is most consistent with the presentation of a patient with acute
colonic diverticulitis?
o Cramping, diarrhea, and leukocytosis
 Major risk factors for diverticulosis include all of the following except
o Low-fiber diet
o family history
o older age
o select connective tissue disorders
 To avoid the development of acute diverticulitis, treatment of diverticulosis can include
o The use of fiber supplements
 The location of discomfort with acute diverticulitis is usually in which of the following
areas of the abdomen?
o Left lower quadrant
 Which of the following best describes colonic diverticulosis
o Bulging pockets in the intestinal wall
 You are seeing Mr. Lopez, a 68 year old man with suspected acute colonic diverticulitis.
In choosing an appropriate imaging study to support this diagnosis, which of the
following abdominal imaging studies is most appropriate?
o CT scan with contrast
 In the evaluation of acute diverticulitis, the most appropriate diagnostic approach to rule
out free air in the abdomen includes
o Plain abdominal film
 A 56 year old woman is diagnosed with mild diverticulitis. In addition to counseling her
about increased fluid intake and adequate rest, you recommend antimicrobial treatment
with
o Ciprofloxacin with metronidazole
 Lower GI hemorrhage associated with diverticular disease usually manifests as

The benefits of buying summaries with Stuvia:

Guaranteed quality through customer reviews

Guaranteed quality through customer reviews

Stuvia customers have reviewed more than 700,000 summaries. This how you know that you are buying the best documents.

Quick and easy check-out

Quick and easy check-out

You can quickly pay through credit card or Stuvia-credit for the summaries. There is no membership needed.

Focus on what matters

Focus on what matters

Your fellow students write the study notes themselves, which is why the documents are always reliable and up-to-date. This ensures you quickly get to the core!

Frequently asked questions

What do I get when I buy this document?

You get a PDF, available immediately after your purchase. The purchased document is accessible anytime, anywhere and indefinitely through your profile.

Satisfaction guarantee: how does it work?

Our satisfaction guarantee ensures that you always find a study document that suits you well. You fill out a form, and our customer service team takes care of the rest.

Who am I buying these notes from?

Stuvia is a marketplace, so you are not buying this document from us, but from seller LEARNEXAMS. Stuvia facilitates payment to the seller.

Will I be stuck with a subscription?

No, you only buy these notes for $30.49. You're not tied to anything after your purchase.

Can Stuvia be trusted?

4.6 stars on Google & Trustpilot (+1000 reviews)

78110 documents were sold in the last 30 days

Founded in 2010, the go-to place to buy study notes for 14 years now

Start selling
$30.49
  • (0)
  Add to cart