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[NEW]AANP Test 2 for Boards Latest Exam 2023 GRADED A 2 LATEST VERSIONS {300 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS $17.49   Add to cart

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[NEW]AANP Test 2 for Boards Latest Exam 2023 GRADED A 2 LATEST VERSIONS {300 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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[NEW]AANP Test 2 for Boards Latest Exam 2023 GRADED A 2 LATEST VERSIONS {300 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS } A 28-year-old female patient is in the office and is to undergo radioactive iodine treatment for Graves disease. The ANP is counseling her and understands that the mechanism of action of this...

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  • December 2, 2023
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[NEW]AANP Test 2 for Boards
Latest Exam 2023 GRADED A 2
LATEST VERSIONS {300
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS }
A 28-year-old female patient is in the office and is to undergo radioactive
iodine treatment for Graves disease. The ANP is counseling her and
understands that the mechanism of action of this treatment therapy is:

alter the thyroid metabolic rate
relieve distress caused by increased thyroid size
destroy the overactive thyroid tissue
reduce production of TSH - Answer Correct answer:
destroy the overactive thyroid tissue

Graves disease is the most common form of thyrotoxicosis. Radioactive iodine is
used for thyroid ablation to destroy the overactive thyroid tissue that causes the
thyroid hormone dysfunction.

Which of the following statements about falls in the elderly is least accurate?

Black women are at higher risk for hip fractures than white women.
The majority of deaths from falls are among people aged 65 years or older.
Injuries from falls include head injuries, pelvic injuries, lacerations, and more.
About 90% of hip fractures are due to falls. - Answer Correct Answer:
Black women are at higher risk for hip fractures than white women.

,It is white women, not black women, who are at higher risk for hip fractures.
Falls are one of the most common adverse events that threaten the quality of life
of older adults. Falls among older adults are not a normal consequence of aging.

Normal age-related changes of the skin may be confused with which of the
following clinical abnormalities?

dehydration
vitiligo
scabies
shingles - Answer Correct Answer:
dehydration


Normal age-related changes of the skin may be confused with dehydration.
Sebaceous gland activity tends to decrease with age, and the skin's natural
hydrators decline over the years. The skin's ability to regenerate lipids
compromising the protective lipid barrier layer of the Stratum Corneum also
declines with age, as does blood flow to the skin, which may cause a drop in
sebum production.

A 29-year old woman who is 6 weeks postpartum reports she is having rectal
bleeding that she believes is related to hemorrhoids. The Adult Nurse
Practitioner knows that this type of rectal bleeding is usually described as:

dark brown to black blood color with normal-appearing stool
significant amounts of bright red blood
large blood clots and mucus mixed with stool
streaks of bright red blood on the stool - Answer The Correct answer is:
streaks of bright red blood on the stool

Choice D is the right answer. The color of blood related to hemorrhoids is
described as bright red, eliminating choice A. Amount of blood with
hemorrhoids is usually small or scant, eliminating choices B and C. Internal
hemorrhoids can occur during or after childbirth. With chronically protruding or
prolapsing hemorrhoids, the patient often reports mucous leaking and staining
of the undergarments. Other causes are obesity, constipation, and prolonged
sitting.

You have a patient with AIDS. You recognize that a low CD4 T-cell count puts the
patient at risk for opportunistic infections. You are reviewing his lab reports and
see that his CD4 T-cell count is indeed low. Which of the following is the normal
range for CD4 T-cell count?

800 -1400
700 -1400

,400 - 1000
600 -1200 - Answer Correct answer:
600 -1200

The normal CD4 T-cell count is 600 - 1200. A low CD4 T-cell count is below 600.
The destruction of the CD4 T-cell causes depletion in the number of CD4 T-cells
and consequently increases the risk of infection. This puts the patient at risk for
infection.

ou have an adult patient with diabetes whose blood pressure is 145/95 mm Hg.
Which stage of hypertension does this indicate?

normal
pre-hypertension
Stage I
Stage II - Answer Correct Answer:
Stage I


Stage I hypertension is characterized by a systolic pressure of 140 - 159 mm Hg
and a diastolic pressure of 90 - 99 mm Hg. The treatment recommendation for
this stage is usually a thiazide diuretic and for those with diabetes, either ACE
inhibitors or ARBs, because of their renal protective properties.

Clinical findings that are characteristic of asthma include all of the following
EXCEPT:

wheezing with and without associated respiratory infections
a congested cough worse during the day
recurrent shortness of breath with exercise
a recurrent spasmodic cough that is worse at night - Answer The Correct
answer is:
a congested cough worse during the day

Choice B is the right answer. The asthmatic patient complains of a cough that is
worse at night and has little congestion or sputum production. There is a history
of wheezing and chest tightness, shortness of breath with exercise, and
symptoms that worsen after airborne allergen exposure.

Which of the following is an example of objective data used for diagnosis?

Patient reports being more tired than usual.
Patient reports having difficulty breathing.
Patient reports productive cough.
Patient's cough produces yellow sputum. - Answer Correct Answer: Patient's
cough produces yellow sputum Objective data must be measurable and

, verifiable. It is key to collect both objective and subjective data to form correct
differential diagnoses and then to determine the correct diagnosis and course of
further testing or treatment for a patient. The ability to synthesize both objective
and subjective data is a key skill for NPs.

A 68-year-old woman has been admitted to the hospital suffering from peripheral
vascular disease (PVD). You check her medical records for predisposing
factors. You recognize that all of the following are predisposing factors EXCEPT:

arteriosclerosis
advanced age
a history of renal problems
valvular incompetence - Answer Correct answer:
a history of renal problems

A predisposing factor for PVD is a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). All of
the other choices are valid predisposing factors.

Which of the following is NOT an indication of impaired skin integrity?

A mole with irregular borders.
Bruises in various stages of healing.
Cuts in various stages of healing.
A navel piercing more than a year old. - Answer Correct Answer:
A navel piercing more than a year old.


Unless the piercing is marked by scabbing or other evidence of trauma, it is not
evidence of impaired skin integrity. Tattoos and other body modifications should
be noted in the patient's assessment, but they are not in themselves cause for
concern.

You are determining the peak expiratory flow (PEF) for a 67-year-old female
patient who suffers from asthma. Which of the following is NOT a factor in
determining peak expiratory flow (PEF) for this patient?

age
height
weight
gender - Answer Correct Answer:
weight


Weight is not a factor in determining PEF. The PEF is based on height (H), age,
(A), and gender (G) - HAG.

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