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LEIK FNP GENDER HEALTH graded A+
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LEIK FNP GENDER HEALTH graded A+
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LEIK FNP GENDER HEALTHWhich of the following findings is most likely in a young primigravida with pregnancy-induced
hypertension?
A) Abdominal cramping and constipation
B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities
C) Shortness of breath
D) Dysuria and frequency - ANSB) Edema of the face and the upper extremities
Common signs and symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension include edema of the face
and the upper extremities, weight gain, blurred vision, elevated BP, proteinuria, and headaches.
A second triple screen on a 35-year-old primigravida reveals abnormally low levels of the alpha
fetoprotein and estriol and high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin. Which of the following
interventions is the best choice?
A) Order an ultrasound
B) Order a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen
C) Order a 24-hour urine for protein clearance
D) Assess for a history of illicit drug or alcohol use - ANSA) Order an ultrasound
Abnormally low levels of alpha fetoprotein and estriol and high levels of human chorionic
gonadotropin are abnormal during pregnancy. An ultrasound should be ordered to further
evaluate the fetus for characteristics of Down syndrome and/or fetal demise.
A 35-year-old primigravida who is at 28 weeks of gestation is expecting twins. What would you
would expect her alpha fetoprotein (AFP) values to be?
A) Normal
B) Higher than normal
C) Lower than normal
D) None of the above - ANSB) Higher than normal
Alpha fetoprotein is produced in the fetal and maternal liver. Higher levels of alpha fetoprotein
are commonly seen in multiple gestations due to the growing fetuses and enlargement of the
livers.
Fetal TORCH infections can cause microcephaly, mental retardation, hepatospleno- megaly,
and intrauterine growth retardation. The acronym TORCH stands for:
A) Toxoplasma gondii, other infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
B) Toxic shock syndrome, ocular infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
zoster
C) Tetanus, ophthalmic infections, roseola, cancer, and head abnormalities
,D) Toxins, other infections, roseola, candidiasis, and head abnormalities - ANSA)
Toxoplasmagondii, other infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
The acronym TORCH stands for
Toxoplasma gondii,
Other infections,
Rubella,
Cytomegalovirus, and
Herpes.
Although several of the conditions listed in the other answer options can also cause fetal
problems, they are not included in the TORCH acronym.
Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection of the larynx has been associated with:
A) Laryngeal neoplasia
B) Esophageal stricture
C) Cervical cancer
D) Metaplasia of esophageal squamous cells - ANSA) Laryngeal neoplasia
HPV infection of the larynx has been associated with laryngeal neoplasia; HPV infection of the
cervix is associated with cervical cancer.
A multigravida who is at 28 weeks of gestation has a fundal height of 29 cm. Which of the
following is the best recommendation for this patient?
A) Advise the mother that her pregnancy is progressing well
B) Order an ultrasound of the uterus
C) Refer her to an obstetrician for an amniocentesis
D) Recommend bed rest with bathroom privileges - ANSA) Advise the mother that her
pregnancy is progressing well
From 20-35 weeks' gestation, fundal height should equal weeks gestation. If greater than 2 cm
within the gestational week of pregnancy, further testing should be performed to evaluate fetal
growth
A multigravida who is at 34 weeks of gestation wants to know at what level her uterine fundus
should be. The best answer is to advise the mother that her fundus is:
A) Midway between the umbilicus and the lower ribs
B) At the level of the umbilicus
C) From 33 to 35 cm
D) From 32 to 34 cm - ANSC) From 33 to 35 cm
After 20 weeks gestation, fundal height in centimeters should measure approximately the same
as the number of weeks of gestation
Precocious puberty is defined as the onset of secondary sexual characteristics before the age
of:
A) Age 7 in girls and age 8 in boys
,B) Age 8 in girls and age 9 in boys
C) Age 9 in girls and age 10 in boys
D) Age 9 for both girls and boys - ANSB) Age 8 in girls and age 9 in boys
Precocious puberty is defined as onset of secondary sexual characteristics by the age of 8
years in girls and 9 years in boys.
At what Tanner stage does puberty start?
A) Tanner Stage I
B) Tanner Stage II
C) Tanner Stage III
D) Tanner Stage IV - ANSB) Tanner Stage II
Puberty is defined as the period in life when secondary sexual characteristics begin to develop,
identified as Tanner Stage II for boys and girls.
A 14-year-old teen is worried that she has not started to menstruate like most of her friends.
During the gynecological examination, the nurse practitioner tells the mother, who is in the room
with the patient, that her daughter is starting Tanner Stage II. What are the physical exam
findings during this stage?
A) Breast buds and some straight pubic hair
B) Fully developed breasts and curly pubic hair
C) Breast tissue with the areola on a separate mound with curly pubic hair
D) No breast tissue and no pubic hair - ANSA) Breast buds and some straight pubic hair
Tanner Stage II in females includes breast buds and few straight, fine pubic hairs.
You note that your 11-year-old female patient is at Tanner Stage II. You would advise her mother
that menarche will probably start in:
A) 1 to 2 years
B) 2.5 to 3 years
C) 4 years
D) It is dependent on the girl's genetic makeup - ANSA) 1 to 2 years
Menarche normally begins approximately 1-2 years following Tanner Stage II. Average age is
11.8 years old.
The mother of a 16-year-old boy is concerned that her son is not developing normally. On
physical exam, the patient is noted to have small testes with no pubic or facial hair. What is the
most appropriate statement to the mother?
A) Her son is developing normally
B) Her son's physical development is delayed and should be evaluated by a pediatric
endocrinologist
C) Her son should be rechecked in 3 months; if he still does not have secondary sexual
characteristics, a thorough hormonal workup should be initiated
D) Her son's physiological development is slower than normal but is within the lower limit of
normal for his age group - ANSB) Her son's physical development is delayed and should be
evaluated by a pediatric endocrinologist
, A 16-year-old male without secondary sexual characteristics should be referred to an
endocrinologist. If there is no testicular development by 14 years of age, referral to an
endocrinologist is recommended.
During a sports physical of a 14-year-old female, you note her breast development. The areola
and the breast tissue are all in one mound. In which Tanner stage is this patient?
A) Tanner Stage I
B) Tanner Stage II
C) Tanner Stage III
D) Tanner Stage IV - ANSC) Tanner Stage III
Tanner stages for breast development:
I = prepuberty
II = breast bud
III = breast and areola one mound
IV = breast and areola secondary mound;
V = adult pattern
When an adolescent male's penis grows more in length than width, at which of the following
Tanner stages is he classified?
A) Tanner Stage II
B) Tanner Stage III
C) Tanner Stage IV
D) Tanner Stage V - ANSB) Tanner Stage III
Tanner Stage III in males consists of penis lengthening and darker, coarse pubic hair, which
begins to curl
What Tanner stage is a girl at when her breasts form a secondary mound?
A) Tanner Stage II
B) Tanner Stage III
C) Tanner Stage IV
D) Tanner Stage V - ANSC) Tanner Stage IV
Tanner stages for breast development: I, prepuberty; II, breast bud; III, breast and areola one
mound; IV, breast and areola secondary mound; V, adult pattern.
When an adolescent female's areola and nipples elevate above the level of the breasts to form
a secondary mound, which of the following is the correct Tanner stage for this phase of breast
development?
A) Tanner Stage I
B) Tanner Stage II
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