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ABFAS Practice Exam 2023 /Questions And Answers Download To Pass!!!!!
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ABFAS Practice Exam 2023 /Questions AndAnswers Download To Pass!!!!!
Quiz :A 45-year-old male sustained a crush-type injury with early soft tissue
necrosis to the left foot. Radiographs are negative for fracture or dislocation.
Which of the following tests would be most helpful for determining skin-flap
viability?
fluorescein dye study.
distal plethysmography.
segmental pressure gradients.
indium scan. - Answer :Rationale: Fluorescein dye studies might not be
routinely ordered, but of the available answer choices, this would provide the
best information on soft tissue viability following a crush injury. Digital
plethysmography and segmental pressure gradient would provide information
about macrovascular perfusion, but not microvascular skin-flap tissue viability.
An indium scan is non-specific for skin-flap viability.
Quiz :A patient presents eight weeks after sustaining a fracture through the
talar neck. Which finding is a prognostic indicator that the vascular supply is
intact?
resorption of subchondral bone of the talar dome.
increased trabecular pattern across the fracture.
increased sclerosis of the talar body.
absence of degenerative arthritis. - Answer :Resorption or subchondral
lucency of the talar dome usually indicates that there is sufficient vascularity in
the talus, often termed Hawkins sign. Increased sclerosis of the talar body may
suggest avascular necrosis. Absence of degenerative arthritis and increased
trabecular pattern across the fracture are not prognostic findings for an intact
vascular supply.
Quiz :For which condition is a bone stimulator most efficacious?
synovial pseudarthrosis.
hypertrophic nonunion.
fibrous nonunion.
fibrous malunion. - Answer :Rationale: Hypertrophic nonunion is the most
appropriate answer choice for a bone stimulator because it is the only non
union amongst the available answer choices listed that theoretically has
sufficient vascularity to heal. A hypertrophic non union may be lacking stability
or normal axial alignment, but is able to heal at a cellular level. Synovial
pseudoarthrosis, fibrous non union and malunion are all caused by inadequate
, immobilization and inadequate blood supply and may be more limited in its
ability to heal.
Quiz :A 25-year-old female sustained an inversion ankle sprain 24 hours ago.
The area is severely edematous and ecchymotic. Diagnostic tests show rupture
of the lateral collateral ligaments. What should the treatment consist of at this
time?
compression dressing for 24 to 48 hours.
open ligament repair.
posterior splint and warm compresses for 24 to 48 hours.
short leg walking cast. - Answer :Acute soft-tissue ankle injuries), Rationale:
Compression dressing for 24 to 48 hours is the best answer. An open ligament
repair is not indicated this early due to the severe edema. A posterior splint
may be indicated but the warm compress is not indicated, as icing would be
more appropriate. A short leg cast can be used however the patient has severe
edema so this is not the best answer as it does not address the swelling.
Quiz :A 30-year-old male complains of a painful right ankle after sustaining a
forced plantarflexion injury. Plantarflexion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the
hallux greatly exacerbate the symptoms of pain at the posterior ankle. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
flexor digitorum longus tendinitis.
fracture of the sustentaculum tali.
fracture of the posterior lip of the tibia.
fracture of the posterior tubercle of the talus. - Answer :Rationale: The injury
mechanism, combined with the current symptoms point to an injury at the
posterior ankle, specifically fracture of the posterior tubercle of the talus,
irritated by movement of the flexor hallucis longus tendon. Flexor digitorum
longus tendinitis is incorrect since the patient indicates he has pain with great
toe motion. Fracture of the sustentaculum tali is incorrect since the patient
expresses pain at the posterior ankle, not medial. Fracture of the posterior lip
of the tibia is incorrect since pain with plantar flexion of the ankle and
dorsiflexion of the toe would point to motion at the talar groove as the likely
cause of the pain. The other options are not the most appropriate answer for
this question based on the choices given.
Quiz :The radiograph is for a 14-year-old male who fell six feet and presented
to the emergency department two hours later. What other diagnostic test is
appropriate to rule out concomitant injury in the emergency room?
axial radiography of the foot.
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