Chapter 34, Chronic and Degenerative Neurologic Disorders test bank complete with correct answers
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Course
PATHOPHARM N334 (PATHOPHARMN334)
Institution
University Of Massachusetts, Amherst
Chapter 34, Chronic and Degenerative Neurologic Disorders
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. Which neurotransmitter dysfunction has been implicated in Tourette’s syndrome?
1. Serotonin
2. Dopamine
3. Acetylcholine
4. Gam...
which neurotransmitter dysfunction has been implic
the nurse is providing care for a client with mul
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University Of Massachusetts, Amherst
PATHOPHARM N334 (PATHOPHARMN334)
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Chapter 34, Chronic and Degenerative Neurologic Disorders
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. Which neurotransmitter dysfunction has been implicated in Tourette’s syndrome?
1.
Serotonin
2.
Dopamine
3.
Acetylcholine
4.
Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA)
2. The nurse educator is teaching a family about athetosis movements in clients with Huntington’s
disease. Which statement made by a family member indicates understanding?
1.
“Athetosis refers to twisting and writhing movements.”
2.
“Athetosis refers to brief, irregular, dancing-like movements.”
3.
“When athetosis is severe, there are thrashing motions referred to as ballismus.”
4.
“Antipsychotic medications are symptomatically beneficial to treat athetosis.”
3. In a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome, the health-care provider finds the possibility of performing
plasmapheresis is low. Which other alternative treatment is recommended to produce the same
effect as that of plasmapheresis?
1.
Corticosteroids
2.
Cerebrospinal fluid filtration
3.
IV immunoglobulin
4.
Immunomodulating agents
4. The nurse is counseling a client newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). Which explanation
does the nurse provide if the client asks, “Why all of a sudden do I have this disease?”
1.
“Your brain has scar tissue called gliotic plaques from infection.”
2.
“At some time you had an infection and did not seek medical care.”
3.
“Your body created antibodies that are attacking the covering of nerve cells.”
4.
“This is an inherited disease for which you have no responsibility.”
5. The nurse is reviewing the most important intervention for clients with myasthenic crisis with staff
nurses. Which statement by an attending nurse indicates understanding?
1.
“The most important intervention is to constantly monitor the arterial blood gases.”
2.
“The forced vital capacity and negative inspiratory force are monitored every 2 to
4 hours.”
3.
“The client is closely monitored in an intensive care unit for decreased heart rate.”
4.
“Immunosuppressant agents are completely withdrawn during a myasthenic
crisis.”
6. The nurse is providing care for multiple clients who are reporting headaches. The nurse’s goal is to
provide preventive care for the development of a migraine. Which client does the nurse prioritize
as the first needing preventive therapy?
1.
A client who experiences one or two migraine attacks per month
, 2.
A young female client who stopped the use of oral contraceptives
3.
A female client who is on therapy with vasodilators
4.
A client who withdrew from consuming alcohol
7. The nurse is obtaining a history on a client who reports recent, severe headaches. Which factor(s) in
the client’s history most likely cause the nurse to identify migraine headaches?
1.
Female gender, 58 years of age
2.
History of closed head injury
3.
Male, history of alcohol abuse
4.
Recurrent upper respiratory infections
8. The nurse is providing care for a client with multiple sclerosis (MS). Which treatment modality does
the nurse expect to be prescribed for this client?
1.
Long-term corticosteroid therapy
2.
Immune-modulating therapy
3.
Physical and occupational therapy
4.
Pain management therapy
9. Which instruction does the nurse provide to a client who is prescribed an anticholinergic drug for
symptomatic relief of Parkinson’s disease?
1.
“Watch out for side effects such as dry mouth and double vision after taking
the medication.”
2.
“You will be able to perform daily activities at a normal pace after taking the
medication.”
3.
“It is dangerous to participate in exercise therapy during the course of medication.”
4.
“Remember the medication may precipitate tremors during the initiation of
therapy.”
10. Which neurotransmitter is depleted in clients with Parkinson’s disease?
1.
Acetylcholine
2.
Serotonin
3.
Dopamine
4.
Glutamate
11. The nurse is providing care for multiple clients being treated for seizure disorder. Which client does
the nurse expect to be diagnosed with status epilepticus?
1.
A client experiencing a series of three tonic-clonic seizures
2.
A client experiencing rapid alternate contraction and relaxation of muscles
3.
A client experiencing seizure who appears to be staring into space for a few
moments
4.
A conscious client with rhythmic jerking movements of the arms and legs
12. The nurse is providing care for a client who is prescribed to undergo a polysomnogram. Which
explanation of the test does the nurse provide?
1.
“The test reveals the amount of spinal nerve injury present.”
2.
“Small temperature differences in an organ can be measured.”
3.
“The test measures brain and body activity during sleep.”
, 4.
“Your response to sensory stimulus can be monitored.”
13. A client is suspected to have a narrowing of the spinal cord. Which test does the health-care provider
prescribe to confirm this diagnosis?
1.
Angiography
2.
Evoked potentials
3.
Computerized tomography (CT)
4.
Electronystagmography
14. While reviewing the medication prescribed for a client, the nurse finds the client is on a therapy to
decrease the release of the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate. Which disorder does the nurse
recognize in the client?
1.
Myasthenia gravis
2.
Huntington’s disease
3.
Guillain-Barré syndrome
4.
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
15. After a theoretical session about edrophonium (Tensilon) testing, the nurse educator asks a staff
nurse to select a client from a group with different neurological disorders on which to perform
the test. Which client is the nurse expected to select?
1.
A client with multiple sclerosis
2.
A client with myasthenia gravis
3.
A client with Huntington’s disease
4.
A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome
16. Which pathophysiological condition particularly activates the trigeminovascular system?
1.
Epilepsy
2.
Cluster headache
3.
Parkinson’s disease
4.
Tension headache
17. A client comes to the clinic and asks for a test to determine the possibility of developing
Huntington’s disease (HD). Which preparation does the nurse make to fulfill the
request?
1.
Acquires saliva to test for a genetic biomarker
2.
Assesses the client for emotional symptoms
3.
Obtains a small sample of blood from the client
4.
Prepares testing to determine cognitive symptoms
18. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of head injury in a motor vehicle accident. The client
reports a lack of coordination and imbalance since the accident. Which part of the cerebrum does
the nurse suspect to have been damaged?
1.
Cerebrum
2.
Brainstem
3.
Cerebellum
4.
Diencephalon
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