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MFT Practice Set Exam Bank Questions 2023.
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MFT Practice Set Exam Bank Questions 2023.
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MFT Practice Set Exam Questions 2023A young woman comes to therapy alone. She has been dating a man for almost a year and they
recently began having sexual relations. Although the woman is sexually aroused during intercourse, she
is unable to achieve orgasm through either intercourse or clitoral stimulation. The woman says that,
while this is her first experience with intercourse, she has masturbated to orgasm several times. In
treating the woman a therapist using Masters and Johnson's approach to sex therapy is most likely to
recommend that the woman use which of the following techniques?
Select one:
a. The bridge technique
b. The stop-start technique
c. Sensate focus
d. The squeeze technique - answerAlthough many questions that ask you to choose an intervention are
"best answer" questions, this is a "one-correct-answer" question because Masters and Johnson suggest
specific procedures for treating each sexual dysfunction.Answer C is correct: In treating secondary
Orgasmic Disorder, Masters and Johnson emphasize the sexual value system and recommend giving the
couple permission to be sexual, using sensate focus with constant communication of likes and dislikes to
the partner, genital play, penile containment without thrusting, and, finally, coitus.Answer A is
incorrect: Be careful: this is associated with Kaplan's treatment for secondary Orgasmic Disorder.Answer
B is incorrect: This is associated with Kaplan's treatment for Premature Ejaculation.Answer D is
incorrect: This technique is associated with Masters and Johnson, but is used to treat male sexual
dysfunction, such as Premature Ejaculation.
The correct answer is: Sensate focus
Based on the initial evaluation of a 15-year-old boy, a clinician believes the nature and number of
his symptoms suggest a DSM-5 diagnosis of Attention-Deficit or Hyperactivity Disorder,
predominantly inattentive presentation. Before assigning the diagnosis, the clinician will want to
confirm that some symptoms were present before the boy wasyears of age and that he exhibits
them in at least
settings.
Select one:
a. 7; 2
b. 12; 2
,c. 6; 3
d. 10; 3 - answerAnswer B is correct: For a diagnosis of ADHD, the DSM-5 requires that "several
inattentive or hyperactive-impulsive symptoms were present prior to age 12" (p. 60) and that
symptoms are present in at least two settings.
Answer A is incorrect: This answer describes the DSM-IV-TR requirements for the diagnosis.
The correct answer is: 12; 2
Bipolar I Disorder is distinguished from Bipolar II Disorder by the presence of which kind of episode?
Select one:
a. Manic episode
b. Psychotic episode
c. Mixed episode
d. Depressed episode - answerThis is another straightforward recall question about diagnosis.Answer A
is correct: The presence of a manic episode rules out Bipolar II Disorder. The criteria for diagnosing
Bipolar I Disorder include one or more manic episodes.Answer B is incorrect: With psychotic features is
a specifier for Bipolar I Disorder, but psychotic episodes are not one of the types of episodes associated
with the Bipolar Disorders.
The correct answer is: Manic episode
Charles and Martha bring their two children to therapy. The parents are concerned with how
disrespectful the youngest child is to the mother. Whenever she tries to discipline him, he engages
in name-calling and has threatened violence. The therapist asks the mother to recall a recent event
that occurred and notes that the husband rolls his eyes and looks away as she begins to speak.
When the therapist calls attention to the husband's response, the youngest child immediately lashes
out at his mother. A structural therapist would view this interaction as:
Select one:
a. Conflict-detouring.
b. Reciprocal inhibition.
c. Equifinality.
,d. Nonsummativity. - answerAnswer A is correct: Conflict-detouring occurs when conflict from one
subsystem is detoured to another subsystem. This is often what is occurring in situations where there is
a family scapegoat. Reciprocal inhibition is a Behavioral Family therapy term that describes the pairing
of responses that are incompatible with anxiety to the previously anxiety-producing stimuli (e.g.
systematic desensitization) (B). Equifinality means that the same results may arise from different origins.
For example, an inhibited child may develop from experiences of physical abuse or emotional abuse (C).
Nonsummativity is the concept that a system cannot by analyzed by isolated segments: "The whole is
greater than the sum of its parts" (D).
The correct answer is: Conflict-detouring.
Cindy and Tom Thomas come to counseling with their 6-year-old son, Michael, who was adopted from a
Romanian orphanage three years ago. Michael has been slow to learn English, is behind at school, and
often doesn't seem focused or socially engaged. Cindy and Tom tell you they often fight about Michael
and Tom says, "I think that Cindy spoils him and now he doesn't want to do anything himself." Your next
step would be to:
Select one:
a. Refer Michael for psychological and psychiatric testing.
b. Refer Cindy and Tom to a parenting class.
c. Normalize Michael's cultural adjustment process.
d. Get a release to speak with his teacher. - answerAnswer A is correct: It is important to refer Michael
for a psychological and psychiatric evaluation. Because Michael's prenatal and first three years of care
are questionable, it cannot be assumed that his problems are acculturation issues or weak parenting. In
recent years there have been many couples who have been stunned to find children who were
adopted from abroad were not properly cared for during their formative years and permanent
cognitive deficits have been the result. Russian and Romanian adoptions have been under specific
scrutiny in this regard. Referring Cindy and Tom to a parenting class would not address any possible
existing organic or psychological problems. Because Michael's prenatal and first three years of care are
questionable, it cannot be assumed that his problems are strictly the result of trial and error parenting
attempts (B). Helping to normalize Michael's bicultural adjustment for his parents is not enough in this
case (C). Getting a release to speak with Michael's teacher might be somewhat helpful, but it doesn't
address the possible organic problems this child may be having as a result of prenatal or early neglect
or abuse (D).
The correct answer is: Refer Michael for psychological and psychiatric testing.
, Clementine, an 18-year-old high school senior, is referred for therapy by her physician. She went to see
her doctor due to constipation and menstrual irregularity. Though slightly underweight, Clementine
talks excessively about being fat and unattractive. When prompted by the MFT, she admits to thinking
that food is a "tyrant" in her life. She also discloses that she sometimes "gorges on food" to a point
where she feels sick and throws up, but is quick to add that she does this no more than a couple of
times a week.
Based on this information, the most likely diagnosis for Clementine is:
Select one:
a. Anorexia Nervosa, binge eating or purging type.
b. Bulimia Nervosa.
c. Major Depressive Disorder with atypical features.
d. Body Dysmorphic Disorder. - answerThe information presented in this question suggests that
Clementine has an eating disorder.Answer A is incorrect: Anorexia and Bulimia share some features
(e.g., disturbed body image), but a person with Anorexia refuses to maintain weight over a minimal
normal level for her height and age.Answer B is correct: The primary clue indicating that Clementine has
Bulimia, rather than Anorexia, is that she is only slightly underweight. Other signs of Bulimia include her
lack of control over eating ("food is a tyrant"); her preoccupation with her body shape and weight; and
her gorging on food and vomiting. Finally, menstrual irregularity (and even amenorrhea) occurs in some
females with Bulimia and constipation can develop in individuals who chronically abuse
laxatives.Answer C is incorrect: Major Depressive Disorder with atypical features often includes
overeating, but Clementine is not exhibiting other symptoms of depression.Answer D is incorrect: You
can rule this out since Clementine clearly seems to have an eating disorder. The essential feature of
Body Dysmorphic Disorder is a preoccupation with an imagined or minor physical flaw.
The correct answer is: Bulimia Nervosa.
During an initial interview with a patient who was recently admitted to the hospital, a therapist finds
that the patient tends to take an unusually long time to answer questions because he spends a lot of
time providing minute details and making parenthetical comments. However, the patient doesn't seem
to lose track of the point he is trying to make and usually ends up answering the questions. The man's
speech pattern is best described by which of the following terms?
Select one:
a. Loosening of associations
b. Circumstantiality
c. Confabulation
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